How did religion get started?

Originally posted by Jan Ardena
No, Parashara was the father, that was how it was interpreted.

Thanks for the clarification. I still think "born in the womb" is an odd way of saying conceived or born but allowances have to be made for translation.

Well you say most religious nonsense, firstly it would be nonsense to someone who cannot understand it, and secondly, what do you regard as ‘sense,’ if most is nonsense. Maybe we talk along those lines.

I find that religious literature is often very vague and interpretation is necessary for understanding. This allows for a wide range of, sometimes contrary, beliefs to be based upon the same text. Transubstantiation of bread and wind into flesh and blood in the Christian doctrine is a good example of this. Some take it literally, others figuratively. Point is, based upon the text itself no determination can be made. This I regard as nonsensical. If one is trying to honestly convey knowledge one has a duty to be as clear as possible. Deliberately being vague is simply a way of avoiding contradiction.

It sounds self-referential as well.
No, as I stated at the end, they are verses out of the Bhagavat Purana, I added nothing.


By "self-referential" I was referring to the fact that you were pointing to your own religious doctrine as verification of the age of that doctrine. Like pointing to the generations listed in the Bible as proof of the age and history of the Biblical texts. Referring to part of the text that is in question as verification of the truth of the text is self-referential, also known as the fallacy of circular logic.

At present, you have a poor fund of knowledge when it comes to things spiritual, its bound to sound nonsensical to you, its like trying to explain the intricacies of life to a 3 year old.

And you say I'm insulting? First, you presume to know the extent of my knowledge then you compare me to a three-year-old.

You say you have read the BG, and make some remark about ‘reality means illusion’ being cited in it, which shows, if you have read it, you most certainly did not understand it, and now you act as if you do. That is blatant ignorance.

My reference was perhaps unclear and poorly cited. Hinduism does, however, refer to the illusory nature of the perceived world, does it not? Here are some proper cites:

"According to Sri Sankara, there is one Absolute Brahman who is Sat-chit-ananda, who is of an absolutely homogeneous nature. The appearance of this world is due to Maya - the illusory power of Brahman which is neither Sat nor Asat. This world is unreal. This world is a Vivarta or apparent modification through Maya. Brahman appears as this universe through Maya. Brahman is the only reality." - Brahma Sutras by Swami Sivananda
rthe 'rtham yat pratiyeta
na pratiyeta catmani
tad vidyad atmano mayam
yathabhaso yatha tamah

Translation:
O Brahma, whatever appears to be of any value, if it is without relation to Me, has no reality. Know it as My illusory energy, that reflection which appears to be in darkness.
"The Supreme Lord said: Both you and I have taken many births. I remember them all, O Arjuna, but you do not remember. (4.05)
Though I am eternal, immutable, and the Lord of all beings, yet I (voluntarily) manifest by controlling My own material nature using My Yoga-maya. (See also 10.14) (4.06)
Yoga-maya is the Ananda Shakti of Lord Krishna. Maha-maya is the fractional reflection of Yoga-maya. Kala-maya is the reflection of Maha-maya. And Maya, the illusory energy, is the supernatural, extraordinary, and mystic power of Brahma. Maha-maya, Kala-maya, and Maya are also called Adi Prakriti; and Prakriti is considered the reflection of Maya. Thus Yoga-maya is the origin of both Maya and Prakriti. Guru Nanak said: "He has created Maya that deceives (and controls) us." The word Maya also means unreal, illusory, or deceptive image of Reality. Due to the power of Maya one considers the universe existent and distinct from Brahma. Brahma-jyoti is the invisible potential energy, and Maya is the kinetic energy, the force of action of Brahma. They are inseparable like fire and heat. Maya is also used as a metaphor to explain the visible world or Jagat to common people. " - The Bhagavad-Gita Translated by Dr. Ramananda Prasad Second Edition
So before you tell me I am speaking from "blatant ignorance" you can refute my sources. As I said earlier the text is unclear and requires interpretation.

My advise to you is, read it, try and develop some kind of understanding, doesn’t matter how basic, then argue from that point of veiw, if you must discredit it.

I have and continue to do so.

Finding out when it was written or who it was written by is information that has no bearing on the philosophy of truth, if it is truth it will become a part of you, depending on how much of the truth is accessable according to your conditioning.

A philosophical truth does not necessarily have any bearing upon historical or empirical truth. This particular exchange we are engaged in comes from my questioning your assertion that the Vedas are over 5000 years old. Something you have yet to prove.

Steady on, I did not have time to post a full post, but I see you couldn’t wait to put me down, he who says does not insult.

Yes, I apologize, that was rather sarcastic and a bit insulting.

~Raithere
 
Gorillas and baboons and such kill each other sometimes.
That is a misleading statement. They, like all mammals, have what can be classified as aggressive play behavior. It in no way represents malice. Any death is incidental.
Monkeys have also been observed to murder, both each other and other species for no apparent reason (such as for food or in competition to reproduce). Sometimes they commit murder en masse... ganging up on one, unfortunate, individual and beating him to death.

Mice and rats will also kill each other and sometime thier own children for no apparent reason as well. Though some argue stress as a cause this could apply as the "reason" humans do it too. I've observed this myself.

The lie of the pacifist / "death only for necessity" aspect of nature is just that... a lie.
I would have to disagree. As I stated above there is no observable tendency towards malevolent behavior. Are we supposed to believe that a creature whose main diet consists of vegetables, leaves, insects, small mammals, and small birds would kill each other for food? When was the last time you saw a carnivore killing one of its kind for food(excluding canabalistic humans)? Killing for no apparent reason? You pump those things full of experimental drugs and then question their erratic behavior.
 
"No. Every Religion all around the world have the exact same ideas. What differentiates them is only their background, the different cultures, languages and the course it takes during History.

If you get all Religions in their beginnings all around the world you will have the exact same Religion. Concidence? No. There must be some Truth there."

Oh. My mistake. I must have missed the part in the Bible where the great eagle creates rain. And I keep missing that part in Indian religion where there is only one god. Could you find it for me?


"Besides that, they explained everything, not "and less and less explanations"... Just read about any Religion and you will see..."

The Natives believed many scientifically impossible things. Because they did not have the science to explain the things, they explained it through super-natural (and now, as we know, impossible) ways.
 
Originally posted by Teg
That is a misleading statement. They, like all mammals, have what can be classified as aggressive play behavior. It in no way represents malice. Any death is incidental.

Wrong. Although I shouldn't have included Gorillas who are quite peaceful.

Baboons and Chimpanzee's, on the other hand, can be quite violent and kill members of their own species as well as other species for no apparent reason. The bodies are not later eaten, the other animal was not being aggressive.

There are plenty of cases of humans being killed by baboons for no apparent reason other than fear and territoriality. How about sharks, who have a tendency to bite first and ask questions later. Humans are rarely, if ever, eaten by sharks they are only bitten (maybe a few times) and released. Ask a hiker, who's been mauled by a grizzly if there was a reason (not all bear attacks involve cubs).

As far as malice is concerned you're on rather tenuous ground there. How does one establish the presence or absence of malice in a non-human animal?

I would have to disagree. As I stated above there is no observable tendency towards malevolent behavior. Are we supposed to believe that a creature whose main diet consists of vegetables, leaves, insects, small mammals, and small birds would kill each other for food?

There sure is. And sometimes not even for food. That's the point. Why would one creature kill another for reasons other than food or defense? Yet they do. Try watching the discovery channel for a week.

When was the last time you saw a carnivore killing one of its kind for food(excluding canabalistic humans)? Killing for no apparent reason? You pump those things full of experimental drugs and then question their erratic behavior.

Since when was murder defined as "killing for no apparent reason"? A lion, when taking over a new pride of females, will sometimes kill the offspring of the former sire. This happens in the wild. Is it "for no apparent reason"? No, there's a definite genetic advantage to kill competitors of your own offspring, the lioness will also come back into heat sooner if her cubs are killed. Would you classify it as murder if a human male killed his new wife's children from another marriage? Of course.

These observances were not made after "pump(ing) those things full of experimental drugs". These observations occur out in the wild as well with "kept" animals in laboratories and as pets. I've seen pet mice and rats kill each other for no apparent reason. Plenty of room, plenty of food, they were sexually segregated so they were not competing to win a mate. In one case a single male rat was caged with a single female. The male killed the female, again for no discernable reason. Why then did they kill each other if not out of pure aggression or territoriality? They were not drugged, they were not unduly stressed, in fact we were hoping that they would mate.

Part of your post that I was initially responding to was " The only problem with this was, and this is pretty much undeniable, without a means of seperation and way of removing guilt/fear of killing and death, no killing occurred prior to religion."

This is purely hypothetical BS. You have no corroborating evidence, no written history to refer to. Lack of evidence is not evidence. I won't argue that religion hasn't given humans a reason or an excuse to kill but your presumption that prior to religion no killing occurred is utterly unfounded.

In fact, a major part of most religions is a declaration against such behavior which would indicate that part of it's function was to stop these activities. Why command "thou shalt not kill" if no one was killing anyone?

The relevance of "Mesopotamia" (a bit inaccurate but I understand your point) that you are missing is the advent of civilization and writing. This is not when religion first occured, it is simply the beginning of a written history. Religion was existant long before this. So was killing, although that was/is not limited to humans.

~Raithere
 
Originally posted by Raithere
Thanks for the clarification. I still think "born in the womb" is an odd way of saying conceived or born but allowances have to be made for translation.

I believe it stated that Vyasadev was ‘born to’ Parashara in the womb of…..
Srila Vyasadeva is an incarnation of the Supreme Lord (known as the literary incarnation of God), His father was the great sage Parashara Muni. As all incarnation are scheduled and sages are celibate (but for procreation), the sage must have undergone very serious penances in order to have the great honour of having the Lord as his son.
So although he discharged his semen into his wife, it was because of Parashara Muni's unconditional love for God, why Srila Vyasadev entered into his seminal fluid, into the womb of his wife.

This allows for a wide range of, sometimes contrary, beliefs to be based upon the same text.

I totally agree, this is why God sends His representatives or comes Himself, to give clarity.
To know if the representative is genuine, his forthcoming will be prophesied in the scriptures.
For example in the Bhavishya Purana[/] it says;

etan mtrantare mleccha
acaryena samanvitah
Mahamd it Khatah
Siyyagrasva samanvitah.


”An illiterate teacher will come along, Mohammaed by name, and he will give religion to his fifth-class companions.”

And;

tatah kalau sampravrte
Sammobaya sura-dwistham
buddho namnanjana-suta
Kikateshu bhavishyati.


“In the beginning of Kali-yuga, the Personality of Godhead will appear in the province of Gaya as Lord Buddha, the son of Anjana, to bewilder the demons who are always envious of the devotees.”

Transubstantiation of bread and wine into flesh and blood in the Christian doctrine is a good example of this.

Try first to understand the mentality of the people at that time, no doubt the act would have been accompanied by a mantra (prayer), the person who authorised it (Jesus??) would be perfectly qualified.
The idea would be to remember God at all times, and if the people were accustomed to drinking wine and eating bread as a general pastime, then it would be easier for them to relate to God on that basis.
Just a guess.

Point is, based upon the text itself no determination can be made. This I regard as nonsensical.

The text would have been easily understood at that time, but not only do we live in a completely different time, we live a completely different lifestyle, so the meaning could easily be lost.

A lot of people in this day and age find it hard to understand the plays and sonnets of Billy Shakespear.

By "self-referential" I was referring to the fact that you were pointing to your own religious doctrine as verification of the age of that doctrine. Like pointing to the generations listed in the Bible as proof of the age and history of the Biblical texts.

The Bible, Qu’ran and Vedanta are non-different in essence, God is the same, but the situations differ according to time place and circumstance. ‘Vedenta’ simply means ‘end of knowledge’ in other words, it gives a complete account of God, whereas religions give accounts according to the people mentality at the time and place.

And you say I'm insulting? First, you presume to know the extent of my knowledge then you compare me to a three-year-old.

I totally apologise, I obviously wouldn't compare you to a three year old, I guess I was a bit naughty in that I didn’t state it. Please accept my apology.

My reference was perhaps unclear and poorly cited. Hinduism does, however, refer to the illusory nature of the perceived world, does it not? Here are some proper cites:

I shall come back to this and the rest of your post later.

Cheers.

Love

Jan Ardena.
 


Wrong wrong wrong! I started religion! It was 74,332 years ago, and I recall it like it was just yesterday...

There I was with my friend Ug at the local McMammothburger, munching on a half-kilo of mammoth on a sesame seed bun, when Ug suggested "Ug". And I thought "Yeah, that's a damn interesting idea. But would anyone go for it?" Ug replied "Ug". So I decided to give it a try, just for something to do. We were all terribly bored back then, lots of free time, particularly in Winter.

So, I started religion.



And you know it's all true because I used Big Blue Letters!
 
HEY ADAM, WHAT ARE THE TENENTS OF YOUR RELIGION? THE GREAT CTHULHU WANTS TO KNOW SO I AM USING BIG GREEN LETTERS!!
 
I SHALT WHAT, ADAMSKI? SHALT I EAT MARSHMALLOWS WHILE DRINKING BEER AND SETTING OFF BOTTLE ROCKETS?

HEY! That gives me an idea....:D
 
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