Gravity never zero

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I thought gravity doesn't work on atomic level and below?

This link is a little less than direct, but it does address $$g$$ – gravity, at the scale of single atoms, The Steven Chu Group.

This boils down to a measurement of $$g$$, at the level of single atoms, in agreement with macroscopic measurements, to within 7ppb.

Gravity seems to be measurably equivalent down to at least the scale of atoms. Subatomic scales become a much more difficult nut to crack.

Edit: here is another link from Stanford, a little less technical than the first, The force of gravity is the same for atoms and baseballs.
 
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That is what we tried to calculate in the Two Neutron Universe. With the help of AlphaNumeric the distance that two neutrons needed to separate before there was an acceleration of less than one Planck Distance / second /second was 88 mm.
Yet if the whole of the Universe's matter was put into two equal Black Holes they would need to be tens of millions times billions of light years apart to have effectively no attraction between them.
So I still think if the Universe was just a diffuse cloud of Hydrogen atoms (H2) more than 150 mm apart they would just bounce off each other and the Universal internal gas pressure would just have kept them apart, no matter how large the nebula was, and we would have never existed.
Ok, thanks for explaining this. So basically gravity never gets too weak to be absolutely zero, at least not within the universe, but I also interpret that it can't stretch to infinity, being infinitely weaker but would rather stop at some definitive point where the planck length doesn't give room for any more bending.


I did a little experiment where I halved the size of the universe each time that I doubled the planck length to see in which size they met, I think that they met when the planck length was about 0,00004 meters, which is very small indeed. One of the responders said "there seems to be more small than big" lol.
 
OnlyMe said:
The equivalence principle, is just a bit more limiting than you suggest. Though it is arrived at through acceleration, it is the inertial resistance to the acceleration.., the constantly changing state of motion, which is equivalent to the force experienced as gravity. It really reduces to similarities between inertia and gravitation. Einstein never cracked that nut, though he spent a great deal of time trying.

Getting any deeper into what the implications of the dynamics of space may represent, within what appears to be implied in your above post(s), begins to venture into some shaky ground.

I believe that it ultimately turns toward some attempt to better define the mechanism of inertia. There are at least a few papers available, focused on attempts to address inertia as emergent from QM. I have seen none as yet that presents a compelling argument. Though I find the idea that the dynamical Casimir effect might be somehow involved, intriguing.

I don't know where else to take this discussion. Any which way you turn it becomes a tangled web.

Just say what you think. It doesn't really seem to be a definite answer. Any discussion is better than none.
Since it was mentioned Einstein had some ideas about space, but reading his works on it I would say a modern explanation is probably better.
Relativity http://www.bartleby.com/173/

It doesn't really seem to be a definite answer.

You're right, it is not a definite answer. The problem is nearing 100 years old now. If we accept that the equivalence principle represents some connection between inertia and gravity, how can we explain that connection? Einstein seemed to favor a Machian view of inertia, where inertia was an artifact, of the influence of the gravitational interaction of all mass in the universe, on any individual body or object. He was unable to incorporate this view into his field equations and GR... And it does not seem that anyone has had any better success.

So the question becomes:
  1. Does the equivalence principle represent some coincidence? Where inertia and gravity only look the same. or
  2. Since we know that Einstein's field equations do describe gravity better than all other models (so far), are we missing something when we attempt to incorporate inertia into the same model? or
  3. Is there some error in the way that Einstein's field equations are projected into the world, as a curvature of space (or spacetime), which limits the incorporation of inertia?
Back to these a bit later...

There have been a number of attempts in the last few decades to develop a model of quantum gravity, that duplicates the predictive success of GR. So far no real success. There have also been a number of attempts to describe inertia as an emergent phenomena, within QM. Though as I mentioned earlier, none that I have seen seem to present a compelling argument, but they come closer than the search for quantum gravity, seems to.

The problem here remains the same as it has for the last 100 years. GR and QM just don't get along well when they are put together.

Again, as mentioned in an earlier post, I find the idea that inertia, is emergent from some interaction between matter and the vacuum energy of empty space, which involves the Dynamical Casimir Effect (DCE), intriguing. Though it does not address inertia, the following paper, Observation of the Dynamical Casimir Effect in a Superconducting Circuit, does discuss the DCE.

As long as you are looking for speculation, it would seem that, if the DCE is confirmed, it would be applicable to any object moving through empty space. Though the paper linked above does not address inertia, the following excerpt(s), can be viewed as supporting some interaction between, an object moving through the vacuum energy of empty space, where that interaction represents an inertia like relationship.

from, Observation of the Dynamical Casimir Effect in a Superconducting Circuit
One of the most surprising predictions of modern quantum theory is that the vacuum of space is not empty. In fact, quantum theory predicts that it teems with virtual particles flitting in and out of existence... 40 years ago, Moore[3] suggested that a mirror undergoing relativistic motion could convert virtual photons into directly observable real photons. This effect was later named the dynamical Casimir effect (DCE)... That a mirror can be used to measure vacuum fluctuations was first predicted by Casimir in 1948[4]. Casimir predicted that two mirrors, i.e. perfectly conducting metal plates, held parallel to each other in vacuum will experience an attractive force. Essentially, the mirrors reduce the density of electromagnetic modes between them. The vacuum radiation pressure between the plates is then less than the pressure outside, generating the force...

For some perspective on the implications, for inertia in the above paper, consider the following,

from Einstein's 1905 E = mc[sup]2[/sup] paper DOES THE INERTIA OF A BODY DEPEND UPON ITS ENERGY-CONTENT?
If a body gives off the energy L in the form of radiation, its mass diminishes
by L/c2. The fact that the energy withdrawn from the body becomes energy of
radiation evidently makes no difference, so that we are led to the more general
conclusion that

The mass of a body is a measure of its energy-content; if the energy changes
by L, the mass changes in the same sense by L/9 × 1020, the energy being
measured in ergs, and the mass in grammes...

If the theory corresponds to the facts, radiation conveys inertia between the
emitting and absorbing bodies.

Taking these two references together, where it is understood that the radiation Einstein refers to, in the above quote, are photons.., and the virtual particles involved in the DCE are photon's, which should the DCE be conclusively confirmed, are converted to real photons, when exposed to matter moving at relativistic velocities, the interaction of moving bodies through the vacuum energy of empty space, becomes a viable mechanism for inertia... Or at least a mechanism worthy of further exploration.

Where the equivalence principle is considered, there are some difficulties that are not resolved, by this approach. There remains a divide between gravity, as described by GR and inertia, as an emergent phenomena associated with the DCE. However, setting that aside for a time...

Assuming that empty space is filled with the vacuum energy of QM. Any object moving through the vacuum energy would be subjected to the same interaction with virtual particles as would, a mirror. While at classical velocities that interaction would be trivially insignificant, as the velocity approaches relativistic magnitudes, that interaction could no longer be considered trivial.., and as an increase in the rate or magnitude of interaction, between an moving object and the vacuum energy of "empty space" grows, with its increasing velocity, so would the object's inertial resistance to further acceleration, increase. This is consistent with our experience of inertia, but it does not bring us any closer to a unified understanding of the relationship between inertia and gravity, as suggested by the equivalence principle.

Just as a side note; If inertia is emergent, as a function of the DCE, it might explain the OPERA FTL neutrino data. Where, neutrinos being (charge) neutral and interacting only weakly, may not theirselves be subject to the DCE, even at relativistic velocities, such that should inertia be a DCE emergent phenomena, the neutrino would not be subjected to any inertial resistance, to motion. Once in motion at any $$v <= c => v$$, a neutrino would remain at that velocity until such time as it does interact weakly with an atomic nucleus or subatomic particle.

So returning to the three choices listed earlier,
  1. Does the equivalence principle represent some coincidence? Where inertia and gravity only look the same. or
  2. Since we know that Einstein's field equations do describe gravity better than all other models (so far), are we missing something when we attempt to incorporate inertia into the same model? or
  3. Is there some error in the way that Einstein's field equations are projected into the world, as a curvature of space (or spacetime), which limits the incorporation of inertia?

it would seem once again, that if inertia is emergent from either the DCE or some other aspect of QM, the equivalence principle represents either a coincidence or that the physical projection of GR, as a curvature of space is not an accurate description.., and gravity is also an emergent phenomena of QM, in some way similar to inertia.

In the end I believe that gravitation, will be found to be an emergent phenomena of QM, and that the equivalence principle will not represent a mere coincidence, of experience. However, I also believe, that when that time arrives QM and the standard model, will not look completely consistent with the way we project them into the world today.

It seems to me that the odds favor some new hybrid theory and approach and that neither GR or QM as we know them today represent a conclusive description of physics and the universe, as we will come to know them, in the future.
 
@OnlyMe - I don't know enough of the things you speak of but even so I found your essay interesting and well researched. I hope it gets discussed.
I never knew that inertia is a problem in GR. It was one of the first scientific concepts I had to deal with as a kid.
I am going to have to see what the issue is. :)
 
Yes, but doesn't that require that spacetime can bend at a very fine resolution? There could be a threshold for how little spacetime can bend where the bending stops since the bending is "swallowed" by the resolution, or is spacetime infinitely defined?

Hence trying to unify quantum mechanics, and Relativity by finding a quantum theory of gravity.
 
@OnlyMe - I don't know enough of the things you speak of but even so I found your essay interesting and well researched. I hope it gets discussed.
I never knew that inertia is a problem in GR. It was one of the first scientific concepts I had to deal with as a kid.
I am going to have to see what the issue is. :)

I don't know that inertia is a problem in GR. It just is not explained to the same extent that gravity is... Inertia remains essentially as an a priori, described and unexplained.

What I was trying to get at is that while there is some potential for an explaintion of inertia from within QM, that in and of itself does nothing to resolve the problems that arise between GR and QM.

If the equivalence principle holds and inertia can be explained within QM, while gravity remains the subject of GR, it would seem to only add to the unresolved issues, when attempting to merge QM and GR.

Incidently, this digression into inertia stems from the question involving a definition of empty space. Is it really empty? Neither GR or QM really treat empty space as "empty". As far as I am aware, of the two, only QM describes that emptiness, as vacuum energy and virtual particles, popping in and out of existence.
 
As far as I am aware, of the two, only QM describes that emptiness, as vacuum energy and virtual particles, popping in and out of existence.

Question:

This popping in and out of existence. My first encounter with this was i think Feynman, concluding that there is a temporal component to all collisions, that they "accelerate" and "decelerate", with sense, on the timeline.

Am I correct? Is there a consensus about temporal weaving back and forth of particles? Is the virtual nature an artifact of random collisions between colliding temporal "branes"? Is there a "backwash" of particles traveling from the future into the past? Long ago I got this lodged in my brain as a tentative explanation.
 
Ok, thanks for explaining this. So basically gravity never gets too weak to be absolutely zero, at least not within the universe, but I also interpret that it can't stretch to infinity, being infinitely weaker but would rather stop at some definitive point where the planck length doesn't give room for any more bending.


I did a little experiment where I halved the size of the universe each time that I doubled the planck length to see in which size they met, I think that they met when the planck length was about 0,00004 meters, which is very small indeed. One of the responders said "there seems to be more small than big" lol.
So when you make up a Universe as we have around us, if two objects are far enough apart that their acceleration toward each other is less than 1 Planck length / sec^2, I'd define them as not gravitationally attracted to each other. This is not a calculation I have attempted, but I have feeling you will find there is not enough mass to account for any attraction, so physicists have introduced Dark Matter being out there between the galaxies to account for Gravitational attraction between them. But does this Dark matter really exist or is there really no gravitational attraction after certain distances as we have proven between two neutrons at 88 mm?
 
OnlyMe said:
The equivalence principle, is just a bit more limiting than you suggest. Though it is arrived at thorugh acceleration, it is the inertial resistance to the acceleration.., the constantly changing state of motion, which is equivalent to the force experienced as gravity. It really reduces to similarities between inertia and gravitation. Einstein never cracked that nut, though he spent a great deal of time trying.
You may have missed another explanation for the equivalence principle and for how space might accelerate: gravitational waves alternately compress and expand regions they propagate through, so gravitons must accelerate then decelerate regions of space.

I would say this occurred to Einstein at the time.
 
You may have missed another explanation for the equivalence principle and for how space might accelerate: gravitational waves alternately compress and expand regions they propagate through, so gravitons must accelerate then decelerate regions of space.

I would say this occurred to Einstein at the time.

I am not connecting with what ever reference you are referring to. I am fairly certain Einstein had no notion of gravitons. He had more than a little trouble with much of QM, without them.

Do you have some reference? Especially for your alternate explanation of the equivalence principle.

Gravitational waves and gravitons are yet unconfirmed theory. They like dark matter and dark energy are more or less place holders used in attempts to explain what has yet to be observationally confirmed.
 
Question:

This popping in and out of existence. My first encounter with this was i think Feynman, concluding that there is a temporal component to all collisions, that they "accelerate" and "decelerate", with sense, on the timeline.

Am I correct? Is there a consensus about temporal weaving back and forth of particles? Is the virtual nature an artifact of random collisions between colliding temporal "branes"? Is there a "backwash" of particles traveling from the future into the past? Long ago I got this lodged in my brain as a tentative explanation.

Aqueous, I am not an authority on QM and the standard model. I could not even begin to comment on the temporal possibilities or interaction of branes. Neither seem to me to be descriptions of experience, as much as unconfirmed theory.

Even in speculation, I try to connect in some way with physical experience. The DCE and inertia issue, seems a logical extension of the DCE to the motion of classical objects through space and the vacuum energy of QM.

Branes start to involve string theory. A subject way over my pay grade, as I was once told by a working particle physicist, at Stanford. And when you start talking temporal.., without a more detailed description of the intent, I start thinking time travel, which does not from what I know, fit with experience. I know very little about string theory and I don't believe that anything involving the idea of time travel, is more than a foray into science fiction.
 
OnlyMe said:
I am fairly certain Einstein had no notion of gravitons. He had more than a little trouble with much of QM, without them.
Einstein realised that general relativity predicted the existence of gravitational waves. It's a bit presumptuous to say Einstein had no notion of gravitons.
 
Einstein realised that general relativity predicted the existence of gravitational waves. It's a bit presumptuous to say Einstein had no notion of gravitons.

Einstein died in 1955. Gravitons first appear in the literature in the early 1940s. The way I phrased that, i.e. no notion, was perhaps a bit too strong, but I have seen nothing that suggests that he embraced the idea, or that he gave it much thought.

While I still maintain that gravitational waves remain unconfirmed theory, I did not mean to suggest that he, Einstein was unaware that they were predicted within GR. Only that they remain an unconfirmed prediction.

Do you have any reference for the alternate explanation of the equivalence principle? I really would be interested, in taking a look.
 
OnlyMe said:
Do you have any reference for the alternate explanation of the equivalence principle?
It isn't really an "alternate" explanation. You may be stuck with the idea of inertial and gravitational mass being equivalent, and then inertial and gravitational acceleration (of mass) also being equivalent.

If gravitational waves exist, then they must act to compress and expand "empty" space, so they must accelerate it. I'm a bit surprised you seem unable to see this.
 
It isn't really an "alternate" explanation. You may be stuck with the idea of inertial and gravitational mass being equivalent, and then inertial and gravitational acceleration (of mass) also being equivalent.

If gravitational waves exist, then they must act to compress and expand "empty" space, so they must accelerate it. I'm a bit surprised you seem unable to see this.

I am not confusing inertial mass and gravitational mass. I am not sure I have even mentioned "inertial mass" within this context.

Perhaps, to some limited extent, the DCE and inertia bit, touched on an explaintion which might explain inertial mass, but it was not the primary focus even then... And had nothing to do with the equivalence principle.

Just to be clear; Whether the acceleration is centrifugal or a uniform linear acceleration, the force that an observer experiences and measures as equivalent to gravitation, is inertial resistance to the constantly changing motion. That has nothing to do with "inertial mass". (I should probably have said is only trivially associated with inertial mass, rather than nothing to do with... Absolutes are almost always a problem.)

Without some better reference, I just don't see the acceleration of space as a functional explanation.

In a purely hypothetical setting.., yes if you were stationary and space were accelerating.., and inertia were emergent as a function of the DCE (or some similar mechanism), you should not be able to distinguish that situation from either standing on a planet or accelerating yourself. But I believe that is really stretching it.

The idea now is that gravity waves should be generated by rapidly orbiting binary neutron stars or black holes, and if an observer were close enough they might be able to "feel" the changing gravitational tidal forces. Even then I am not certain we could conclude that space itself was being stretched and or compressed.

Even if it were discovered that space could or does have some independent kinetic velocity or acceleration, how would anyone in space be able to measure that? Anyone sufficiently distant from a strong gravitational source, would likely experience a state free fall and just move with space. I don't see any way to observe or measure this. But then there are some very bright kids around these days. Who knows what ideas they will come up with?
 
So when you make up a Universe as we have around us, if two objects are far enough apart that their acceleration toward each other is less than 1 Planck length / sec^2, I'd define them as not gravitationally attracted to each other. This is not a calculation I have attempted, but I have feeling you will find there is not enough mass to account for any attraction, so physicists have introduced Dark Matter being out there between the galaxies to account for Gravitational attraction between them. But does this Dark matter really exist or is there really no gravitational attraction after certain distances as we have proven between two neutrons at 88 mm?
That could be the case. Have they accounted for the resolution of the universe? I think that currently astronomers view spacetime as continuous without discrete units, and that the planck length only applies to objects (or waves) travelling through spacetime. QFT kind of suggest that since the equations gives rise to infinities due to the infinite number of particles that could be present in any location (all with a energy that isn't zero), perhaps quantifying spacetime would solve those problems.

I could be wrong though, I've only researched other subjects to find these things, I haven't actually researched the idea of spacetime being quantified, but believe that there isn't a infinite resolution. This could be verified by looking at a ray of light that stems from very far away, if there are discrete units of spacetime, then the angle won't be continuous, if the ray stems from the edge of the universe then there would be a 0,0004 m gap where the ray from the same source couldn't be found, if we assume that the ray of light is completely straight (in accordance to spacetime). This would simply be because any angle when starting that far away will become a much larger angle in the end if the angle must be within the planck length then this difference could be seen from here. However, if space was continuous then light at every infinite number of angles could meet us and there would be no gap of angles when arriving.

I'm sometimes terrible at explaining things so I hope that you see what I mean, otherwise feel free to ask.

Btw; here's the thread where I do the experiment (in programming) to calculate where the size of the universe meets the planck length: SciForums - Where the smallest and the biggest meet
 
It doesn't really seem to be a definite answer.

You're right, it is not a definite answer. The problem is nearing 100 years old now. If we accept that the equivalence principle represents some connection between inertia and gravity, how can we explain that connection? Einstein seemed to favor a Machian view of inertia, where inertia was an artifact, of the influence of the gravitational interaction of all mass in the universe, on any individual body or object. He was unable to incorporate this view into his field equations and GR... And it does not seem that anyone has had any better success.
So the question becomes:
  1. Does the equivalence principle represent some coincidence? Where inertia and gravity only look the same. or

  1. As per wiki : (Inertial mass) (Acceleration) = (Intensity of the gravitational field) (Gravitational mass).

    [*]Since we know that Einstein's field equations do describe gravity better than all other models (so far), are we missing something when we attempt to incorporate inertia into the same model? or
    [*]Is there some error in the way that Einstein's field equations are projected into the world, as a curvature of space (or spacetime), which limits the incorporation of inertia?

We know curvature of spacetime generates force . But do we know , how much spacetime curves to generate how much force ?
 
As per wiki : (Inertial mass) (Acceleration) = (Intensity of the gravitational field) (Gravitational mass).

Hansda, I don't know where on Wiki you got that reference, but I believe it is misleading.

For classical applications, inertial mass is just an object's rest mass times its velocity. Here we are dealing essentially with momentum $$p = mv$$, so inertial mass is another way of describing an object's momentum. But it is also used to describe an object's resistance to any change in velocity. This can lead to confussion.

Gravitational mass is an object's rest mass. Where the object is in a gravitational field, will determine how much force a given rest mass will exert on a scale and be measured as weight, in pounds or kilograms.

When an object is under acceleration, its resistance to the constant change in its velocity is defined by its rest mass not its momentum or its momentum related inertial mass and can also be measured using scales as weight, again in pounds or kilograms. Sometimes this is described as a pseudo force, or in some cases, as a ficticiuos force (i.e. centrifugal force is a ficticiuos or pseudo force).

The statement or question of mine, you were responding to was not as clearly stated as it should have been.

Once we begin to deal with relativistic velocities, it does start to get a little more complicated. There comes a point where it requires more force to increase an object's velocity by defined amount, than it did to initially accelerate it by that same amount. Ending with a "speed limit" of c.
 
..... Once we begin to deal with relativistic velocities, it does start to get a little more complicated. There comes a point where it requires more force to increase an object's velocity by defined amount, than it did to initially accelerate it by that same amount. Ending with a "speed limit" of c.

The fact that it gets harder and harder to accelerate an object as it approaches relativistic velocities is this due to the relativistic mass increasing, so you are no longer accelerating the rest mass but any mass acquired through the input of the energy prior to that?
Would it be at slower speeds the relativistic effect being too insignificant to measure?
 
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