does it matter?

Enigma'07 said:
Yes. God has told us every thing we need to know, and that we should not add to , or take from His word.
When was the last time you were baptized for some person who is dead?
1 Cor. 15:29 describes a ritual where people (not just any person the newly converted followers) are baptized for the dead. If you view the Bible as God's word dictated to various men, then where is your baptism for the dead?
Paul uses this practice to demonstrate the reality of the resurrection that he had been teaching.
 
How can it be taken as certain that Paul intended to correct the persons who practiced baptism for the dead?
 
Because Paul wrote letters to believers to strengthen them and encourage them. He wrote explaining how to live for God, what they did and did not need to do.
 
That does not begin to answer the question. Your websight assumed that Paul would head over and fix those blasted Corinthians good. But, there is no evidence he did so. Infact evidence suggesting baptism for the dead took place does not end until the belief in the physical resurection ends. Early christians believed in a literal corporeal animation. It is for that reason they practiced baptism for the dead. Paul does not give any reason to believe he was going to end this practice. Furthermore, he gives no reason to believe he thought the practice evil or corrupt.
 
Give me some time, I have an apointment right now, I'm not trying to leave you hanging.
 
Enigma'07 said:
Give me some time, I have an apointment right now, I'm not trying to leave you hanging.
No problem. Its cool. I'll just think of something to do while I wait. :m: j/k
 
Sorry it took so long. Power went out...

Your websight assumed that Paul would head over and fix those blasted Corinthians good. But, there is no evidence he did so

1Corinthians 11:34
If anyone is hungry, let him eat at home, so that you will not come together for judgment. The remaining matters I will arrange when I come.

Baptism for the dead is one of those matters. Also, Paul is saying that once a person is dead, there is nothing you can do for them.

did that help or am I still walking in circles?
 
Where does it suggest baptism for the dead is one of those matters? I may be wrong but it seems it is your bias that Paul must have fixed it. But, there is no evidence he did so. Infact, it could be argued that such a practice was a fullfillment of the promise in Malachi 4:5-6.
 
I'm not saying Paul fixed the matter, just that he said it wasn't nessicary. It may be my bias, but I think Paul was just trying to say, 'hey guys, this isn't doing any good, your wasting your time, why don't you spend your time on something that will make a differance.'

Infact, it could be argued that such a practice was a fullfillment of the promise in Malachi 4:5-6.

How so?
 
Enigma'07 said:
Elijah appeared, with Moses, to Jesus and his followers. From here the hearts of living generations should have been turned to those past. It is no surprise that from this time forward the people did infact change their attitude for the dead. They even went so far as to feed them milk and honey long after they had been burried. Practices like baptism for the dead continued until the people stopped believing in the resurrection.
 
Elijah/ Moses only apppeared to 3 of Jesus' followers. Moses symbolized the Law. Elijah symbolized the prophets that spoke of Jesus' coming.

They even went so far as to feed them milk and honey long after they had been burried. Practices like baptism for the dead continued until the people stopped believing in the resurrection.

Really? I didn't know that. could you give me a verse?

I think part of the problem was that people knew in order for them selves to be saved, they were to be baptised as an outward sign, but they didn't realize that the people that were alreadyt dead were saved by differant means.
 
Enigma'07 said:
Elijah/ Moses only apppeared to 3 of Jesus' followers. Moses symbolized the Law.
I don't know of any passages that say he's gonna hang out and watch football with the guys.

Enigma'07 said:
Really? I didn't know that. could you give me a verse?
That is more a matter of history then biblical record.

Enigma'07 said:
I think part of the problem was that people knew in order for them selves to be saved, they were to be baptised as an outward sign, but they didn't realize that the people that were alreadyt dead were saved by differant means.

You established the Bible as Holy and complete. Not allowing for inclusive or exclusive doctrinal changes. How then do suppose persons without baptism could be saved? Jesus told Nicodemus except a man be born of water he cannot enter into the kingdom of God. After this discussion Jesus and his followers went to Judea where he baptized.
How then, could persons who were dead be saved without baptism?
 
Because people in the old testament were saved by believing that Christ would come, where as people in the new testament are saved by accepting that He came and trying to be like Him.
 
Baptism was not new to the people of the new testament. Why do you think old testament people did not practice baptism?
 
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