Let's assume that all sexual activity is at the consent of all involved. If you would like to reply regarding this situation, then please do so. Otherwise...
original: So if hypothetical example man were to have sex with a ten year old male child, but still fantasized about a twenty year old girl, he would not be a homosexual pedophile?
Repo Man: He would be a rapist. Do you think rapists who rape 80 year old women are attracted to 80 year old women?
What makes people pedophiles is their strong to exclusive attraction to prepubescent children; a pedophile who successfully has sex with an adult is still a pedophile. His experience with another adult did not change the fact that he is primarily attracted to prepubescent children. Even if he never gives in to the temptation, and actually molests a child, he is still a pedophile.
Do you really think that a straight man who has had sex once or twice in his life with another man is bisexual?
original: You have indirectly answered no to my question and instead accused hypothetical example man (HEM) of rape. Here is the situation for HEM:
He is a forty year old man. He is "exclusively attracted" to women over twenty. However, one day a ten year old boy asks him for sex, and HEM is a permissive man and says yes. So they have sex. This is the only encounter. What would you consider his sexual orientation to be?
original: So if hypothetical example man were to have sex with a ten year old male child, but still fantasized about a twenty year old girl, he would not be a homosexual pedophile?
Repo Man: He would be a rapist. Do you think rapists who rape 80 year old women are attracted to 80 year old women?
What makes people pedophiles is their strong to exclusive attraction to prepubescent children; a pedophile who successfully has sex with an adult is still a pedophile. His experience with another adult did not change the fact that he is primarily attracted to prepubescent children. Even if he never gives in to the temptation, and actually molests a child, he is still a pedophile.
Do you really think that a straight man who has had sex once or twice in his life with another man is bisexual?
original: You have indirectly answered no to my question and instead accused hypothetical example man (HEM) of rape. Here is the situation for HEM:
He is a forty year old man. He is "exclusively attracted" to women over twenty. However, one day a ten year old boy asks him for sex, and HEM is a permissive man and says yes. So they have sex. This is the only encounter. What would you consider his sexual orientation to be?