Write4U
Valued Senior Member
Wait, that's your position. ......How does learning logic prove indeterminism?
Wait, that's your position. ......How does learning logic prove indeterminism?
hee heeWait, that's your position. ......
You did notice that that "interpretation" (it was a direct quote) you are making even more obviously fallacyIceaura, on the other hand, and some others, would interpret it thus:
P1: Socrates is a is a mortal creature.
C1: Socrates is mortal.
I have merely exchanged "man" for "mortal creature" after all.
Especially since it is explicitly defined, repeatedly, in these threads.When someone refers to the universe as deterministic, it is quite clear what is meant
Which we have assumed, remember? With no loss of relevance, since that is exactly what we observe as well.Obeying physical law is only equivalent to determinism if those laws are deterministic.
It does. It is explicitly defined in terms of cause and effect, for starters.That does not include probabilistic laws.
You mean Baldeee and Sarkus and the rest - I did no such interpreting. I merely quoted, and pointed.Iceaura, on the other hand, and some others, would interpret it thus:
Well, I know that the actual original quote was by Baldeee, and that you have amended the quote quite significantly, a matter that should in itself warrant reporting for the gross dishonesty it is.You did notice that that "interpretation" (it was a direct quote) you are making even more obviously fallacy
(showing an unused capability you genuinely, actually, possess - even if you never use it)
was not mine, right? That I was quoting?
Most in the field of QM would disagree with you. Some still adhere to the notion of “hidden variables”, but most evidence seems to point to the indeterministic / probabilistic nature being inherent.Probabilistic laws are just fudging for a lack of information...a qualified speculation about deterministic causation and effect...IMO
And you accept that that excludes quantum mechanics, and anything else inherently probabilistic?Especially since it is explicitly defined, repeatedly, in these threads.
We have indeed assumed it. Yet probabilistic laws are indeterministic, so are excluded.Which we have assumed, remember? With no loss of relevance, since that is exactly what we observe as well.
It does not. We didn’t simply assume cause and effect, but determinism. Furthermore, probabilistic outcomes have zero cause for the specific outcome that results. There are causes for the probability function, but the specific outcome is random within the probability function. No cause, thus indeterministic.It does. It is explicitly defined in terms of cause and effect, for starters.
You merely amended, then quoted, then pointed at your handiwork as if your amended quote was not your interpretation. Dishonest much?You mean Baldeee and Sarkus and the rest - I did no such interpreting. I merely quoted, and pointed.
I have and I find no conflict.Most in the field of QM would disagree with you. Some still adhere to the notion of “hidden variables”, but most evidence seems to point to the indeterministic / probabilistic nature being inherent.
Look up “quantum indeterminacy” in wiki for an overview.
There is a difference between inherent lack of knowledge or precision, and just a practical rather theoretical lack of precision. The former is what it means to be an indeterministic system, whereas the latter can be found in deterministic systems as well. But the former is mutually exclusive with a deterministic system.I have no problem with probability being used when precision is unavailable.
Yes, the imprecision is inherent, the state is not completely determined by the previous state. If it was completely determined then everything would be able to be known about it (theoretically). This is what determinism is.Again all this is saying is that unique collection of measurable properties are not determined by the state of a system that can not be known due to inherent imprecision.
As a starter for 10, look at the first line of wiki’s entry for intdeterminism:Can you provide a link that confirms your position of non-causality leading to indeterminate outcomes? ( putting aside local and non-local hidden variables for the moment.)
As said, most in the field would disagree with you, but some still adhere to the “hidden variables”, which is what your position would seem to be. As such QM is no longer indeterministic, nor probabilistic, and any view of it being so is due to our subjective lack of knowledge.I have and I find no conflict.
thanks for your post...As a starter for 10, look at the first line of wiki’s entry for intdeterminism:
“Indeterminism is the idea that events (or certain events, or events of certain types) are not caused, or not caused deterministically.”
I.e. non-causality leads to indeterminism.
Quantum indeterminacy is the notion that one can not measure all properties of a physical system necessary to describe it completely. This is an inherent property of the system and nothing to do with practical limitations of measurement. What it means is that if you measure what you can you are still left with an incompleteness in the description that can at best be described probabilistically. I.e. we can not determine it completely. Thus indeterministic.thanks for your post...
However were we not referring to Quantum indeterminacy...
How does Indeterminism relate to Quantum indeterminacy?
A tad confused... sorry...
No, I didn't. I quoted the exact words, and made the context perfectly clear.Well, I know that the actual original quote was by Baldeee, and that you have amended the quote quite significantly,
It began with an assumption, labeled "P1" in one of the versions.The latter argument merely began with the already reached conclusion that in a deterministic universe there is no ability to do otherwise, i.e. not free.
Nonsense.Had you read or understood what he was saying at the time he was not claiming the arguments were equivalent in anything other than form.
Contradiction in terms, in quantum theory: the probabilities are causal.Furthermore, probabilistic outcomes have zero cause for the specific outcome that results.
The measurements are not "incomplete" - all the properties that exist can be measured.Quantum indeterminacy is the notion that one can not measure all properties of a physical system necessary to describe it completely. This is an inherent property of the system and nothing to do with practical limitations of measurement.
That's a completeness in the description.What it means is that if you measure what you can you are still left with an incompleteness in the description that can at best be described probabilistically.
It determines the outcomes just fine. It is the substrate of cause and effect, the basis of our assumed causal determinism.Thus indeterministic.
The probabilities determine it, completely.We can come up with probabilities to describe it, but the actual state is not able to be completely determined
Yes you are quite right but missed the issue of non-causality..
- Quantum indeterminacy is the notion that one can not measure all properties of a physical system necessary to describe it completely.
- This is an inherent property of the system and nothing to do with practical limitations of measurement.
- What it means is that if you measure what you can you are still left with an incompleteness in the description that can at best be described probabilistically.
- I.e. we can not determine it completely. Thus indeterministic.
Agreed, and funnily enough even the quality freedom is irrelevant and unnecessarily loaded with a history that prevents it's rational usage. Hence emphasizing the term self- determination instead.It is irrelevant to freedom of will, irrelevant to the entire discussion
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I have no problem with probability being used when precision is unavailable.
There is a difference between inherent lack of knowledge or precision, and just a practical rather theoretical lack of precision. The former is what it means to be an indeterministic system, whereas the latter can be found in deterministic systems as well. But the former is mutually exclusive with a deterministic system.
No, that was explained in post #870Yes you are quite right but missed the issue of non-causality..
Garbage. The physical science informs the philosophy. Stop trying to squirm out of things through posting utter garbage.One is a philosophy the other is a physical science
So again you have cross purposed your response...
All events are caused, yes, up to causing a probability function, but you can not completely determine the outcome from those causes. And thus it is not deterministic. This is the mistake you and iceaura are making.In quantum indeterminacy all events have causality.
To claim otherwise is to understand the terms being used, nothing about the supernatural at all.To claim other wise is to invoke the super natural which you seem to have a love hate relationship with.
is the universe's mass/energy encoded with a probability function?All events are caused, yes, up to causing a probability function, but you can not completely determine the outcome from those causes.
Instead of "probability function" in what I wrote, try reading it as "an outcome governed by a probability function". I merely reduced this to "probability function", 'cos most would understand what that is referring to.is the universe's mass/energy encoded with a probability function?
Probability is simply mathematics ... you do realize this don't you?