Texts don't infer (nor imply) anything - people do.
Which is why it is so revealing to check one's intentions, esp. when it comes to reading and critiquing scriptures.
The question asks whether it's a contradiction. The negative are using an argument that formulates an explanation that rephrases the original cite.
When such efforts are made to preserve the literal meaning (or revised semi-metaphorical recasting of phraseology to preserve it), the focus shifts away from doctrine and belief, and toward a ritualized behavior commonly associated with fundamentalism, namely, to effectively enshrine literalism as if it were the fourth person in a Holy Tetrarchy.
It should be sufficiently revealing, just by checking fundamentalist textual analysis, that the intention is to preserve literalism.