Atheistic Syllogisms

Originally posted by GB-GIL Trans-global
But perhaps one could assert that divine beings cannot be seen by human eyes or detected by human instruments, therefore the Greek gods are beyond disproof?


Constant redefinition or "reinterpretation" in light of some emperical or logical fault is one of the main problems I have with religion and one of the reasons why, even as a Theist, I refused traditional, primarily western, religions.

It reminds me of Obi Wan in Return of the Jedi, explaining to Luke that he didn't mean it literally when he told Luke that Darth Vader killed his father but he meant it metaphorically.

Specifically, no. That is not how the Greek Gods were depicted.

~Raithere
 
Originally posted by Cris
The primary point of weak atheism is a disbelief in the claims of theists. There is no question of degree of belief.

Let me put it this way. Assume you are a weak atheist (and maybe you in fact are, I don't know.) Here's a statement:

By my estimate, the probability that God exists is ___.

Fill in the blank. If you put down 0, you are saying you're certain God does not exist (strong atheism.) If you put anything other than 0, you're a weak atheist.

Of course, you can refuse to fill in the blank, but that's not a valid response; it's a cop out. Humans tend to naturally assign probabilities or likelihoods to everything. So, somewhere in the guts of your epistemic engine you have lodged the answer. All you need to do is dig around until you find it. That would be the honest way to confront the question.
 
Greek myths do not outline a code of conduct. The deities were fashioned after stereotypical behavioral types of the day. There is no concept of salvation. There is no attempt to deal with daily life.

It would be like trying to worship Paul Bunyan. The correlation fails. Christianity is a viable code of ethical moral conduct.

(as if I HAD to say it...)

-Mike
 
Originally posted by Ekimklaw
Greek myths do not outline a code of conduct.

Huh? What of all the festivals and sacrifices (to honor the gods)? What of all the ways you could misbehave and piss the gods off?

The deities were fashioned after stereotypical behavioral types of the day.

Perhaps. But then so are all of the biblical authors.

There is no concept of salvation.

Elysian fields, or something to that effect? (vs. Hades)

There is no attempt to deal with daily life.

Heh? It was all about daily life. The remnants of temples survive to this day. Which strongly indicates systematic worship. Which always correlates to daily life.

Christianity is a viable code of ethical moral conduct.

As "viable" as any other. Their civilization did endure and flourish, amidst a world of tyranny and savagery. The first democracies. Not to mention the tremendous cultural and scientific progress in general.

Would I rather live then or now? Well, now of course. But given a choice between them and anything else at the time, I choose them.

(as if I HAD to say it...)

Apparently, you did. :rolleyes:

Dude, I really don't know all that much about the Greek pantheon and worship, but even I (who never studied the stuff) can determine just how wrong you are. Makes me wonder if you ever paid any attention.
 
Originally posted by Ekimklaw
Greek myths do not outline a code of conduct. The deities were fashioned after stereotypical behavioral types of the day. There is no concept of salvation. There is no attempt to deal with daily life.

It would be like trying to worship Paul Bunyan. The correlation fails. Christianity is a viable code of ethical moral conduct.

(as if I HAD to say it...)

-Mike

And you accuse me of not knowing Christianity :rolleyes:

Hellenic traditional religion (for the love of the existant Zeus, please stop calling them myths, whether they outline a code of conduct or not, some people still believe them to be true, meaning they are NOT myths any more than are your tales of Jesus) does indeed outline morals and a code of conduct. Your religion and ignorance (oh wait, for some people such as YOU the line between the two is very BLURRY) have prevented you from seeing this fact. For some people, this religion was a WAY of LIFE.
 
Originally posted by overdoze
By my estimate, the probability that God exists is ___.

Fill in the blank. If you put down 0, you are saying you're certain God does not exist (strong atheism.) If you put anything other than 0, you're a weak atheist.


Defining belief by probability is a vast oversimplification. If we force the simplification, however, it would probably be more correct to say:

Weak Atheist: Probability that God exists = 0%
Strong Atheist: Probability that God cannot exist = 100%

~Raithere
 
Adam dons his silly black ninja outfit, and hides in the shadows, awaiting his opportunity...

"HAH!" Adam strikes, sword slicing cleanly through Raithere!

Ninja Adam dissolves seemlessly back into the shadows, as four severed limbs twitch on the sciforums floor...
 
Originally posted by Adam
Adam dons his silly black ninja outfit, and hides in the shadows, awaiting his opportunity...

"HAH!" Adam strikes, sword slicing cleanly through Raithere!

Ninja Adam dissolves seemlessly back into the shadows, as four severed limbs twitch on the sciforums floor...

*Yawn*

Being cyberspace Raithere simply re-loads his avatar and continues discussion but not before sneaking up on Adam and tying jingle-bells to Adams slippers so he can't sneak up on him again.
 
Originally posted by Raithere
Originally posted by overdoze
Weak Atheist: Probability that God exists = 0%
Strong Atheist: Probability that God cannot exist = 100%


By this you state:

weak atheist <=> strong atheist

pr(!P) = 1 - pr(P) [by definition]

P: God exists
!P: God does not exist

Weak Atheist: pr(P) = 0 => pr(!P) = 1 - pr(P) = 1 (or, 100%) => Strong Atheist

[ps: *sneakily hacks into Raithere's avatar and inserts mufflers into its ears*]
 
Originally posted by overdoze
weak atheist <=> strong atheist

pr(!P) = 1 - pr(P) [by definition]

P: God exists
!P: God does not exist

Weak Atheist: pr(P) = 0 => pr(!P) = 1 - pr(P) = 1 (or, 100%) => Strong Atheist


Exactly why I find the model problematic. It's not a matter of probability but of scope; both the weak and strong positions believe that the probability of God's existence is zero. The weak position refuses to make an assertion beyond the scope of human experience. The strong position makes such an assertion. The problem with forcing it to a probability is factoring in the unknown, which you cannot do with a significant degree of accuracy.

~Raithere
 
Originally posted by Raithere
It's not a matter of probability but of scope; both the weak and strong positions believe that the probability of God's existence is zero.

Not true. Stating that pr(P) = 0 is the same as stating !P. IOW, stating there is absolutely no god, with 100% certainty, regardless of any unknowns and with no reservations (that's what probability of 1 means.)

The weak position refuses to make an assertion beyond the scope of human experience. The problem with forcing it to a probability is factoring in the unknown, which you cannot do with a significant degree of accuracy.

The weak position factors in the unknown by taking pr(P) > 0, even if simultaneously stating that pr(P) << 1.
 
Originally posted by overdoze
The weak position factors in the unknown by taking pr(P) > 0, even if simultaneously stating that pr(P) << 1.


I understand what you're saying but I find it incorrect to give pr(P) a value greater than 0. Even so, I can distinguish weak Atheism from strong Atheism. As there is 0 known evidence how can you determine any amount for pr(P)? What about pr(P) = !0?

Also, how would one then make the distinction between weak Atheist and Agnostic?

You'd also need to define pr(P) for within the scope of human experience. For instance, I can state unequivocally that the probability that a cat exists in this room is 0. But I would obviously be wrong to assert that the probability of a cat existing at all is 0.

What it comes down to, I believe, is a difference in the questions being answered. For instance:

Based upon any known evidence or logical argument, what is the probability that God exists?
A(w) = 0, A(s) = 0

What is the probability that any definition of God exists in or beyond the Universe?
A(w) = !0, A(s)=0

~Raithere
 
Overdoze,

Of course, you can refuse to fill in the blank, but that's not a valid response; it's a cop out.
Where there is an absence of evidence a null result is perfectly valid and rational. Especially since absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.

Humans tend to naturally assign probabilities or likelihoods to everything.
Note that the terms ‘tend’ and ‘naturally’ imply a partial set, and hence cannot apply to all weak atheists. However, while your assessment has some truth it is beyond the scope of weak atheism, which is strictly disbelief so an assessment of belief has nothing to do with weak atheism.

So, somewhere in the guts of your epistemic engine you have lodged the answer. All you need to do is dig around until you find it. That would be the honest way to confront the question.
Perhaps, but that has nothing to do with the definition of weak atheism. And without evidence such a conclusion would be irrational and not everyone thinks the way you suggest.

Where there is a total absence of evidence the question of the probability for the existence of a god must be assessed identically to any assessment of any imaginative fantasy. But here the discussion is about belief and outside of weak atheism. Without evidence there is no method that can be used to assess the potential truth of a fantasy, and hence the result must be null, as opposed to a zero or positive value.

Cris
 
Originally posted by Raithere
I understand what you're saying but I find it incorrect to give pr(P) a value greater than 0. Even so, I can distinguish weak Atheism from strong Atheism. As there is 0 known evidence how can you determine any amount for pr(P)? What about pr(P) = !0?

Ok, let's say pr(P) != 0. That is the same as pr(P) > 0 (mathematically identical) -- since pr(P) >= 0 by definition. So we're back to a weak position of pr(P) << 1.

Also, how would one then make the distinction between weak Atheist and Agnostic?

I'd say Agnostic is the one who refuses to answer.

You'd also need to define pr(P) for within the scope of human experience. For instance, I can state unequivocally that the probability that a cat exists in this room is 0. But I would obviously be wrong to assert that the probability of a cat existing at all is 0.

That's the same as stating

P: a cat exists
pr(P) > 0.

What it comes down to, I believe, is a difference in the questions being answered. For instance:

Based upon any known evidence or logical argument, what is the probability that God exists?
A(w) = 0, A(s) = 0

What is the probability that any definition of God exists in or beyond the Universe?
A(w) = !0, A(s)=0

Well, the first question is kind of obvious. You wouldn't be called atheist if you gave the probability as anything other than 0. The second question is the one I'm focusing on, and again A(w) != 0 is the same as A(w) > 0. Which is exactly what I said at the start. :)
 
Originally posted by Cris
Where there is an absence of evidence a null result is perfectly valid and rational. Especially since absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.

Careful with language, Cris. Mathematically, and as commonly used by statisticians, "null result" means a probability of a hypothesis being true that is less than 0.95

I think you're using "null" in a computer programmer's sense. Correct me if I'm wrong.

Note that the terms ‘tend’ and ‘naturally’ imply a partial set, and hence cannot apply to all weak atheists.

I could've been more assertive. Humans always have a probability judgement, no matter what question you pose to them. Whether the judgement is accurate (and whether they feel their own assessment is well-grounded), is another matter.

However, while your assessment has some truth it is beyond the scope of weak atheism, which is strictly disbelief so an assessment of belief has nothing to do with weak atheism.

Let's say that the strong atheist position is pr(P) = 0 (P being "a god exists"). The weak atheist clearly disbelieves this equality, so he would state pr(P) != 0. If not, he'd be agreeing with the strong atheist and in fact he would be himself a strong atheist. pr(P) != 0 is the same as pr(P) > 0. On the other hand, if you refuse to choose at all, you're agnostic (i.e. you're walking away, whining "I don't know".) But you must have an estimate, even if an extremely ill-founded one.

And without evidence such a conclusion would be irrational and not everyone thinks the way you suggest.

I'm suggesting that the way people think can be expressed without loss of information in terms of their estimating probabilities. In fact, I think beliefs are nothing but probability estimates. They may change in interesting ways and have all sorts of biases, but that's just the mechanics of probability estimation particular to the human brain.

Where there is a total absence of evidence the question of the probability for the existence of a god must be assessed identically to any assessment of any imaginative fantasy.

You sound like a strong atheist there (I agree.)

Without evidence there is no method that can be used to assess the potential truth of a fantasy, and hence the result must be null, as opposed to a zero or positive value.

Of course there is a method. You said it yourself, you must judge that fantasy on the same grounds you judge all fantasies. In probability theory it's very simple. Take 1, divide by size of the set of possible outcomes, and presto! you've got a probability estimate. IMHO, the set of all fantasies is infinite, so the resulting outcome is 0.

This is a so-called apriori probability estimate [pr(P)]. Now, if you're talking about basing your beliefs on some evidence, then you're in the realm of aposteriori probability estimates [pr(P|Q)]. Both are a valid form of estimate in statistics, and both types are used routinely in real life.
 
Originally posted by GB-GIL Trans-global


And you accuse me of not knowing Christianity :rolleyes:

Hellenic traditional religion (for the love of the existant Zeus, please stop calling them myths, whether they outline a code of conduct or not, some people still believe them to be true, meaning they are NOT myths any more than are your tales of Jesus) does indeed outline morals and a code of conduct. Your religion and ignorance (oh wait, for some people such as YOU the line between the two is very BLURRY) have prevented you from seeing this fact. For some people, this religion was a WAY of LIFE.

I said all that to see if anyone would come to the defense of Greek Mythology as a religious belief.

Which you did.

This proves you are simply being argumentative. I guess you should list yourselves as Atheists (with a special warm spot for Traditional Hellenistic Religion).

For your info I taught a course on Greek mythology in college. I am very familiar with it.

have a nice day.

-Mike
 
Originally posted by Ekimklaw


I said all that to see if anyone would come to the defense of Greek Mythology as a religious belief.

Which you did.

This proves you are simply being argumentative. I guess you should list yourselves as Atheists (with a special warm spot for Traditional Hellenistic Religion).

For your info I taught a course on Greek mythology in college. I am very familiar with it.

have a nice day.

-Mike

Either you were grossly underqualified for the position on you have since changed your mind.

Oh, by the way, I once taught a class at my college called "The True God Is The Christian God, And He's So Wonderful That We Should All Bask In His Glory", it was so good that all my students converted to Christianity :rolleyes:
 
Hang on, let me get this straight.

God is good
Hell is bad
God doesn't exsist

If we don't believe in god, how can we believe in hell?

Anyway, my arguement doesn't come under that. I was never taught to be religious (only at school, I hate them so much) and I was free to make my own descision on religion (such good parents, I love them). I obviously chose not to believe as it:
A - Didn't make sense
B - So many loopholes in the bible
C - I don't want to be a slave

So therefore, god doesn't exsist in my life. I don't even say 'Oh my god' (haven't said that in a while, last time was to take the piss out of Janice from Friends).
 
Overdoze,

We're digressing quickly here and I'm not adept enough at mathematics to provide you with a more accurate formula. Suffice it to say there is a difference between the wA and sA positions. The difference lies in what each claims to know. The weak Atheist position refuses to declare absolutely. You cannot, with any claim of accuracy, declare a probability for something which you have no evidence (neither for nor against). Therefore, to assert any probability is purely assumption, it must be declared "unknown". The wA position refuses to make, what it believes, to be an unsubstantiated claim. This is not the same as declaring any probability.

~Raithere
 
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