Why is mother Mary considered holy ?

Paraclete

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Why is mother Mary considered holy ?

In the bible, Mary is described as a "virgin" - but in the original hebrew text she is only a "young woman" (able to have children) - is that a deliberate translation error ?

She certainly looses in holiness by this .....

Jesus did not like his mother at all and rejected her totally :

Mark 3:31-35 :
When his mother Mary and Jesus´s brothers came to visit him (yes, he had brothers - so much for his mothers virginity) , he wouldn´t even say hello , but simply dismissed them with the words: "Who is my mother and my brothers "

in else meaning that his followers were his family ...


And in John 2:4 :

Jesus rejects his mother Mary´s question with these words:
" Woman, what have I to do with thee ? "

Jesus did not like her, and she was not a virgin - why is she holy ?
 
Mother Mary was actually a jew , she did not follow Jesus !!!!!!

Beats me, why christians think, she is holy at all .........
 
Paraclete said:
Why is mother Mary considered holy ?

me))))))because she is supposed to have birthed 'God/Jesus'

In the bible, Mary is described as a "virgin" - but in the original hebrew text she is only a "young woman" (able to have children) - is that a deliberate translation error ?

me)))))the orogianl meaning of 'Virgin' was not what is assumed now, ie., a young woman who has not had sex yet. rather it means an INDEPENDENT woman. seems the Hebrews focuseed on her baby bearing capacity. typical patriarhcs!

She certainly looses in holiness by this .....

Jesus did not like his mother at all and rejected her totally :

Mark 3:31-35 :
When his mother Mary and Jesus´s brothers came to visit him (yes, he had brothers - so much for his mothers virginity) , he wouldn´t even say hello , but simply dismissed them with the words: "Who is my mother and my brothers "

in else meaning that his followers were his family ...


And in John 2:4 :

Jesus rejects his mother Mary´s question with these words:
" Woman, what have I to do with thee ? "

Jesus did not like her, and she was not a virgin - why is she holy ?
you have to dig that te story is patriarchal and Jesus is more his 'Father's' chile. tis is the patriarchy all over. mum becomes mere receptical and dad 'God'

but a deeper understanding of myth is of course, Jesus = sacred mushroom Mary = Gddess/Earth from which 'god/man'mushroom' sprung ....te rest is paraphanalia
 
There are different versions of the gospel of Thomas , in one of them Jesus says:
He who does not hate his father and mother , like I hate my father and mother , can not be my disciple !!
He did not like his rapist father : God
 
Because people constructing a story like the Bible must have ways to make certain people holy or else it doesn't make sense. Do you really think the Bible makes any sense as a realistic view or just someone trying to make up a great novel?
 
Lord Insane said:
Mother Mary might be holy because God stuck his penis into her and raped her !!
*************
M*W: Welcome to sciforums, Lord Insane. You'll find many of your peers within.

Mother Mary might have been raped, it's true, but I believe if Jesus was conceived, it was by Julius Tiberius Abdes Panthera, the Roman centurian. Now, it has come to pass that some folks believe the name "Panthera" is Latin for "panther." I tend to disagree. Romans of the day were named after the emperors and procurators, ergo "Julius" and "Tiberius." Then they added the given name and the family's surname -- "Abdes," the root word for "abdes" meaning "father of," and "Panthera," meaning "pan," or many/widespread, "the," for "god," and "ra" for "sun." "The Father of God's sun/son." They were all Pagan myths.
 
They had to make her holy (virginal), so that Jesus appeared to fufill Old Testament prophecies.
 
Thank you for welcoming me , Medicine Woman .....

I can see that you have read Kelso (Celsus) , who wrote about 100 years after the death of Jesus , and claimed that the father of Jesus was a roman soldier named Panthera - however panthera in greek also means son of all men - a bastard with an unknown father .......

Poor Jesus - I can understand why he hated his parents, no matter who they were !!
 
Paraclete said:
Why is mother Mary considered holy ?

In the bible, Mary is described as a "virgin" - but in the original hebrew text she is only a "young woman" (able to have children) - is that a deliberate translation error ?

She certainly looses in holiness by this .....

Jesus did not like his mother at all and rejected her totally :

Mark 3:31-35 :
When his mother Mary and Jesus´s brothers came to visit him (yes, he had brothers - so much for his mothers virginity) , he wouldn´t even say hello , but simply dismissed them with the words: "Who is my mother and my brothers "

in else meaning that his followers were his family ...


And in John 2:4 :

Jesus rejects his mother Mary´s question with these words:
" Woman, what have I to do with thee ? "

Jesus did not like her, and she was not a virgin - why is she holy ?

Mary being Holy is a creation of the catholic and orthodox churches. While Mary was a virgin when she gave birth to Jesus she did not remain so after Jesus birth.

Mary was not Holy. Mary was a sinner just like the rest of humanity.


All Praise The Ancient Of Days
 
Adstar ,

According to the originally hebrew text Mary was NOT a virgin, when she gave birth to Jesus - only a " young woman " - NOT a virgin ......
 
The kind of blind clueless confusion I see here is all too common.

(1) You quoted a unique mistranslation of the book of John:

Jesus rejects his mother Mary´s question with these words:
" Woman, what have I to do with thee ? " (John 2:4 KJV 1925 rev.)

This translation is of course nonsense. The original Greek is:
tis emoi kai soi, gunai? (John 2:4 Nestle/Aland, Hodges/Farstadd etc.)

Literally: "What is that to me and to you, girl?". Jesus is referring to the fact that they are out of wine at the wedding, when of course Jesus and His followers, including the devoted and religious Maria (Mary) are Nazarites, forbidden to drink wine. (Numbers 6:1-28).

There is no dispute as to the basic meaning or translation either: The New Revised Standard Version for instance, renders the verse:
"Woman, what concern is that to you and to me?..." (NRSV Jn 2:4)

The Greek text is not even in any dispute here, and there are no known variants in the manuscript tradition.

The simple fact is, the original King James Translators overstepped their authority in trying to 'enhance' certain verses in an attempt to combat what they perceived as the 'error' of Mariolatry, the danger of "Mary worship".

In actual fact, Catholics don't really commit 'Mariolatry' (Idolatry via Mary Worship), and Protestants wrongly twisted the original bible in this case in an attempt to support the doctrine of the 'otherness' of Jesus, and denigrate or downplay honour and respect for Mary, which was quite common and natural within reasonable bounds, and even sanctioned by the gospel of Luke.

The knee-jerk reaction of the protestants really fell on its face here, and even the New King James Version was forced to correct this embarrassing bit of 'doctoring' of the translation to suit doctrinal prejudices.

Mary is of course honoured throughout the New Testament gospels, as the mother of the Messiah, and is portrayed consistently as a woman of God, with great faith, and in some cases with a courage and faithfulness lacking in the Apostles themselves.

For instance one can look at the Nativity stories in Luke, as well as the scenes surrounding the crucifixion and burial of Jesus, and the cowardice and skepticism of the men, versus the courage and faith of the women including Mary who risked the abuse of Roman soldiers to minister to the body of Jesus.
 
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According to the originally hebrew text Mary was NOT a virgin, when she gave birth to Jesus - only a " young woman " - NOT a virgin ......
Likewise, this old piece of propaganda is regularly trotted out by Jews to confound naive Christians. It is a hopelessly disengenious argument, based upon the long out-of-date dictionary of Gesenius, and 19th century German criticism.

The prophecy in Isaiah is most definitely a prophecy about a virgin.

(1) Culturally, and at least formally, all young maids were required to be virgins in ancient Israel under Moses' Law. Even having sex out of wedlock was punished with death by stoning in the kingdom days, unless the girl was not betrothed, which resulted in a shotgun wedding on the spot, and no divorce possible for life. Words ultimately are defined by their cultural usage in the historical period in question.

The Hebrew word which some Rabbis are now trying to claim only meant 'young maiden' is clearly shown to be synonymous with 'virgin' throughout the period, the greatest and most irrefutable evidence for this being the various ancient Greek translations of Isaiah (the Septuagint etc.). These translations were made 500 years before Christianity, even proposed an actual fulfillment of the prophecy. No alternate rendering of Isaiah, or indeed any other part of the Old Testament has been found, other than 'virgin' for this Hebrew group of synonyms. The trilateral root system of biblical Hebrew doesn't actually allow for much choice in the matter.

(2) It makes no sense to render Isaiah's prophecy as 'young woman', since in that case, the 'miracle' described by Isaiah becomes a non-sequitous joke.

Imagine Isaiah standing up in the temple:
"Thus says the LORD:
A great wonder and a miracle never before seen upon the earth is about to happen!"


The people stand on the edge of their seats with bated breathe, mouthing the question, "What is it?"

Isaiah responds to the collected High Priest, Levites, Leaders of the great tribes and houses of Israel:

"Some chick on welfare is going to pop another puppy.".

That is supposed to be the prophecy of Isaiah, according to unbelieving Rabbis who hate Christianity? Thanks, but I think we'll stick to the translation that has stood for 2,500 years now, and has been recognized as authoritative by Orthodox Jews and Christians throughout ancient times.

Call me out of date.
 
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