Why is gun control so difficult in the US?

The origin of the 2nd Amendment is documented, the motives clear, the historical considerations and factors blatantly obvious and the time and to this day.
Yes it is.

Which begs the question..

Why do gun advocates continuously attempt to rewrite history to suit their narrative?

This isn't a judgment call - whatever one may think of the modern relevance of the circumstances of 1780, their contemporary nature is nailed down.
You still haven't answered the question by the way. Nor surprising really.

In the meantime, perhaps you can ponder why the US has historically supported disarming the local "peasantry" in countries they are bombing and attacking. Such as Afghanistan, for example. Wouldn't it be ironic if they adopted a similar gun policy to the US as a result of your country's actions, such as your countrymen's claims to needing guns to protect against tyranny, follows the narratives that King George III 'came fer ye guns', while ignoring the Parliament and frankly, the rise of the call of the English who demanded that the American colonists be disarmed and reminded of their place. You know, the English "peasants" wanted the American "peasants" to know their place, especially after the Boston Tea Party. In other words, the British Parliament acted with full support of the Sovereign and the "peasants".
 
if there were a ligitimate "Right to bare arms" then the police would not have a "working in place" "shoot first policy" as soon as a weapon was guessed to be in their vacinity.
people baring arms in their vacinity would be normal if it were the real law.

but it is not.

there are countless cell phone videos showing this and countless court cases declaring this as legally ligitimate.
You can clearly see that when ever a gun is suspected then the persons rights are completely removed instantly.
 
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And the rewriting of history continues
Maybe an overtly anti-gun essay review of the history involved will be acceptable as informative?
http://www.slate.com/articles/news_...e_turns_on_english_laws_of_1328_and_1689.html
The Glorious Revolution of 1688–89 established a Protestant monarchy in England under William and Mary, ending the reign of the Stuarts. The Bill of Rights codified the constitutional limits on the new monarchy, including a provision guaranteeing Protestants (but not Catholics or Jews) the right to bear arms. But political realities overrode this provision. The new monarchy remained vulnerable to “Jacobites” seeking to restore the Stuart dynasty, with French and Spanish backing. This danger meant the British state could not permit widespread gun ownership.

The new monarchy’s disarmament laws built on laws passed after the Restoration of 1660, when the Stuarts returned to power after 11 years of republican rule and were similarly concerned with political stability. A 1670 statute had limited firearms possession to the noble and rich, although even their arsenals were subject to search and seizure at sensitive moments. A series of game laws from 1671 through 1831 dramatically reduced the number of people permitted to hunt, empowering gamekeepers to search for and seize unauthorized firearms. Smuggling laws also made carrying arms grounds for arrest. An armed militia was active through the 1680s, but not the 80 years that followed. Through the 1740s, its arms were locked in royal arsenals and distributed only at assembly. The government’s success at disarming the population made the militia superfluous, since its entire purpose was to prevent an armed rising against the government.
- - -
After every war, the ordnance office carefully gathered in soldiers’ arms. Scotland and Ireland, as potential Jacobite strongholds, were rigorously disarmed.
The much-bemoaned ignorance of fresh recruits at the start of each war confirms that firearms were not familiar objects for most Britons. Fear of uncontrolled arms possession guided debate about revival of the militia in 1757, when dynastic fears receded, making a property qualification in land central to participation in the militia. The state continued to disarm the population in moments of political crisis, such as the Gordon Riots of 1780.
So, despite the Bill of Rights, the British state established a policy of regulating and prohibiting arms possession among dissident elements and the lower orders of society. Only the upper class and noble social elements with which it shared power could freely possess firearms.
You have three guesses as to what demographic and regional category of British citizens provided the bulk of the pioneer Americans who revolted against the Crown and wrote the US Constitution. First two don't count. And if any of them include those noble enough, rich enough, and/or living on grand enough estates not in Ireland or Scotland to be permitted to hunt in the mid 1700s, and therefore allowed to carry firearms on their own authority, you're just fooling yourself.

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Why do gun advocates continuously attempt to rewrite history to suit their narrative?
There's no "gun advocate" present. That's dishonest, and it's slander, and it's misrepresentation of my posting.
You are attempting to deny written history. That is dishonest - you have been provided with information.
There's no such "narrative" involved, and you are not dealing with the information provided or the content of the post you claim to be responding to.
And that manner of posting, the troll question or Fox question, is dishonest in the extreme.
 
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-Shall issue certainly promotes gun ownership more than may issue.
-Makes no difference, in general.

Any data on that or just noise?
Same data base as the original claim, only more carefully considered.
About a third of the adults in my State possess a gun. About 5% have a carry permit, which is newly shall issue. So if every single carry permit issued was a new one after shall issue passed, and every single one involved the purchase of a new gun by someone who had no gun before getting their permit, and every single gun owner owns exactly one gun, the influence of the carry law increased the number of guns and gun owners in the State by 15%. That's the upper bound.
My State (and county): http://www.startribune.com/as-gun-c...ota-related-crimes-remain-in-check/322600721/
A more realistic highball number - gun owners own on average three guns, three quarters of the carry permits involve previously owned guns, and a fifth of the new permits were issued to previous permit holders - would be 1% (incompetently calculating by assuming no overlap, but it's highball in the first place).
I'm satisfied with the finding.
You haven't checked it out.
And it's obviously in need of very careful examination - the attempt is of something quite tricky, very difficult, and unlikely to be successful even if the effect it found were real.
 
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Ok, calming down - - -
In the meantime, perhaps you can ponder why the US has historically supported disarming the local "peasantry" in countries they are bombing and attacking. Such as Afghanistan, for example.
Same reason conquerers and despots and dictators and authoritarians and the like always do. Did you somehow miss the central point of all those posts you responded to? Disarming the peasantry is something any oppressive State will do automatically. It's a no-brainer, is how I put it above.

The authors of the American Constitution were slaveholders, who carefully disarmed their slaves. They knew very well why they didn't want a central government to be able to disarm them. It's not that they had some kind of moral or philosophical objection to disarming people (such as Reds or Blacks or - later, out west - Yellows and Browns), they just didn't want to suffer the consequences of being disarmed themselves.
You know, the English "peasants" wanted the American "peasants" to know their place, especially after the Boston Tea Party. In other words, the British Parliament acted with full support of the Sovereign and the "peasants".
Of course. What's your point?

You did notice that the 2nd Amendment was directed specifically at Congress, right? I have pointed this out to you a couple of times now. It curbs the American analogy of a Parliament, prevents it from doing what the British government did - regardless of popular sentiment or support.

They didn't want to recreate the oppression of Crown rule, in their new central government. And they had specific ideas, thoroughly grounded in experience and education, about how to prevent it.
 
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...Listening to brain washed people talk about principal rules of the cult they prescribe to.
There are soo many new US laws which completely suspend &/or circumvent the 2nd amendment ideological principal that it reduces those espousing its fundermental concrete principal to be intellectually incongruent to normal discussion.

Reminding me of the fact only 50% of the voting population care to vote & the consequential inflection that derives of the true content & nature of touted democratic majority principals.
And what was the Second Amendment's fundamental concrete principle at that time, and has anything changed that might force us to take a second look at the Second Amendment, to see if it's fundamental principles are still valid in it's entirety?

Has anyone's gun be confiscated yet?

What disturbs me is that I can be arrested for having a sawed off shotgun (for good reason), but I can walk in a store and buy an AR15.
Can you equate these two scenarios in any logical way?
 
And what was the Second Amendment's fundamental concrete principle at that time, and has anything changed that might force us to take a second look at the Second Amendment, to see if it's fundamental principles are still valid in it's entirety?
Unnecessary, and probably not a good idea. You don't necessarily want to lose the 2nd Amendment, for starters ("When guns are outlawed, only the government will have guns" Abbey - you sure that's a situation you want to create? ).
What disturbs me is that I can be arrested for having a sawed off shotgun (for good reason), but I can walk in a store and buy an AR15.
Can you equate these two scenarios in any logical way?
Nope.
So? The sawed off shotgun restriction is justifiable under the 2nd Amendment, easily, just as a "bump-stock" ban would be if one could be passed through this Congress. And imho severe restrictions on rapid-fire weapons - even total bans - would get past 2nd Amendment review, much as Tommygun and RPG bans have.
The illogic is in the circumstantial politics, not the Constitution or anybody's fundamental principles.
Has anyone's gun be confiscated yet?
Yeah. The most famous was in the aftermath of Katrina, when mercenaries employed by Homeland Security confiscated weapons from black people in New Orleans.
 
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You don't necessarily want to lose the 2nd Amendment
I never suggested that, I am a gun owner. In No Idaho it is a required defense against large predators. Here we have wolves, cougars, bears (including Grizzly). I friend of mine had an encounter with a grizz. Fortunately he had his all-terrain motorcycle which allowed him to escape.

All I suggested is that we take a second look, in view of the existence of weapons which are much further advanced than people in those days could have imagined.

If we were to write the Second Amendement today, would it be worded exactly the same as 2 centuries ago?
 
Yeah. The most famous was in the aftermath of Katrina, when mercenaries employed by Homeland Security confiscated weapons from black people in New Orleans.
You mean non-military mercenaries are allowed fully automatic war weapons, such as large caliber machine guns, or are they a "well regulated" non-military militia"?

I seem to remember some stories of Blackwater mercenaries during the middle east war.

Now that scares the hell out of me! "Well regulated", my ass.
Academi is an American private military company founded in 1997 by former Navy SEAL officer Erik Prince[2][3] as Blackwater,[4] renamed as Xe Services in 2009 and now known as Academi since 2011 after the company was acquired by a group of private investors.[5] The company received widespread notoriety in 2007, when a group of its employees were convicted of killing 14 Iraqi civilians in Nisour Square, Baghdad for which four guards were convicted in a U.S. court
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Academi

Note they were convicted in a civil court, not by a military tribunal.
 
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Same data base as the original claim, only more carefully considered.
About a third of the adults in my State possess a gun. About 5% have a carry permit, which is newly shall issue. So if every single carry permit issued was a new one after shall issue passed, and every single one involved the purchase of a new gun by someone who had no gun before getting their permit, and every single gun owner owns exactly one gun, the influence of the carry law increased the number of guns and gun owners in the State by 15%. That's the upper bound.
My State (and county): http://www.startribune.com/as-gun-c...ota-related-crimes-remain-in-check/322600721/
A more realistic highball number - gun owners own on average three guns, three quarters of the carry permits involve previously owned guns, and a fifth of the new permits were issued to previous permit holders - would be 1% (incompetently calculating by assuming no overlap, but it's highball in the first place).
I said it promotes "gun ownership", not new gun ownership. Learn to read. Most people don't conceal carry what they already had for home defense, and many new female permit holders are also new gun owners.
Shall issue conceal carry does not increase the number of guns.
It certainly increases the number of guns in public, where many crimes occur.​
You haven't checked it out.
And it's obviously in need of very careful examination - the attempt is of something quite tricky, very difficult, and unlikely to be successful even if the effect it found were real.
So I should just believe you, and if I don't agree, I've obviously not examined it closely enough.
Okay. Whatever helps you sleep at night.
 
I said it promotes "gun ownership", not new gun ownership. Learn to read
It certainly increases the number of guns in public, where many crimes occur.
The subject - your subject, posted by you - was the number of guns. How many there are. That guided my responses. If you want to change the subject, feel free.
So I should just believe you, and if I don't agree, I've obviously not examined it closely enough.
Yep. It's statistics - there is a right answer.
You mean non-military mercenaries are allowed fully automatic war weapons, such as large caliber machine guns, or are they a "well regulated" non-military militia"?
They aren't militia, they're military. Mercenaries. Hired soldiers. Of course they have military weapons.
 
The subject - your subject, posted by you - was the number of guns. How many there are. That guided my responses. If you want to change the subject, feel free.

Yep. It's statistics - there is a right answer.

They aren't militia, they're military. Mercenaries. Hired soldiers. Of course they have military weapons.
Then why were they convicted in Civil Court?
 
The subject - your subject, posted by you - was the number of guns. How many there are. That guided my responses. If you want to change the subject, feel free.
Go read the discussion again. You lost track of it somewhere.
Yep. It's statistics - there is a right answer.
Nope, not taking your word on it.
 
Maybe an overtly anti-gun essay review of the history involved will be acceptable as informative?
http://www.slate.com/articles/news_...e_turns_on_english_laws_of_1328_and_1689.html
Which is different to what I had said, how, exactly? I mean, I even suggested you go back and read about the Glorious Revolution and the Bill of Rights which was enacted to revert a lot of what King James had done - ie protect and arm the Catholics while attempting to disarm the Protestants (which failed terribly). I also noted how it then attempted to arm the Protestants against the Catholics within the population, to ensure the superiority of the Protestants by King William and Queen Mary, who were Protestant, while Mary's father, James and the Government of his day, favoured the Catholics immensely. While the Government attempted to regulate arms, it wasn't that successful. Just ask King James...

You have three guesses as to what demographic and regional category of British citizens provided the bulk of the pioneer Americans who revolted against the Crown and wrote the US Constitution. First two don't count. And if any of them include those noble enough, rich enough, and/or living on grand enough estates not in Ireland or Scotland to be permitted to hunt in the mid 1700s, and therefore allowed to carry firearms on their own authority, you're just fooling yourself.
The Government's attempts to disarm the Scots failed dismally. The revolt against Britain was because of increased taxes and because the colonists felt they should have representation in Britain's Parliament and that taxes should be imposed by a direct representative and not a distant Government and Crown. When the Government of Britain passed laws to disarm the colonialists in the US, it was with the full support of the "peasantry" of the UK, as well as the Monarch, as they felt that the Americans were demanding a seat at a table they did not feel you belonged to. There is a reason why so many young British men volunteered to come and fight the Americans.. You know, the "peasantry" of Britain literally wanted to bring the US to heel. They felt that the acts of the colonists in the US were overtly aggressive and no colonial power would be willing to give up that much (ie the US that the British controlled at that point). You do get that, right?

There's no "gun advocate" present. That's dishonest, and it's slander, and it's misrepresentation of my posting.
You are attempting to deny written history. That is dishonest - you have been provided with information.
There's no such "narrative" involved, and you are not dealing with the information provided or the content of the post you claim to be responding to.
And that manner of posting, the troll question or Fox question, is dishonest in the extreme.
I am not the one rewriting history to suit a narrative. As in literally, I am not. Thus far I have seen one individual present an essay of sorts that twisted history to such an extent that it was a painful read. Americans have been taught a bizarre version of events and the reason is because it suits the narrative of your country's founding. It's the same reason why the British colonials in Australia white washed the hundreds of massacres of Indigenous Australians and attempted to falsely claim terra nullius for generations, when it clearly was not. It isn't unusual or new or original. You have made claims that the monarchy disarmed the populace. It did not. No monarchy or monarch has ever been able to disarm the "peasants" or the "peasantry".

It's like the history taught of how the British stole your gunpowder and weapons and then placed the embargo.. What seems to constantly be missing is that in the ensuing standoff, the British paid for the gunpowder and weapons that were taken as a deal. Your founders were already buying weapons from the Netherlands and Spain and I believe France as well, to bypass any threat of embargo or ban of allowing weapons into the US. Instead, the history seems to focus on the disarmament, but not the payments, or the fact that you were free to buy weapons from other colonial powers that held parts of the US at that time.

Ok, calming down - - -
You were perturbed? Aww..
Same reason conquerers and despots and dictators and authoritarians and the like always do. Did you somehow miss the central point of all those posts you responded to? Disarming the peasantry is something any oppressive State will do automatically. It's a no-brainer, is how I put it above.
Now, what is the risk of this happening again in the US?

That was my initial question in this thread.
Same reason conquerers and despots and dictators and authoritarians and the like always do. Did you somehow miss the central point of all those posts you responded to? Disarming the peasantry is something any oppressive State will do automatically. It's a no-brainer, is how I put it above.
Again, what is the risk of this happening again in the US?

The authors of the American Constitution were slaveholders, who carefully disarmed their slaves. They knew very well why they didn't want a central government to be able to disarm them. It's not that they had some kind of moral or philosophical objection to disarming people (such as Reds or Blacks or - later, out west - Yellows and Browns), they just didn't want to suffer the consequences of being disarmed themselves.
Ermm actually, the slaves that were brought and bought and sold in the US were disarmed upon capture in Africa. It wasn't careful. And it happened long before your founders were even a twinkle in their parents eyes. These policies were in place before the US even became part of the slave trade.

Of course. What's your point?

You did notice that the 2nd Amendment was directed specifically at Congress, right? I have pointed this out to you a couple of times now. It curbs the American analogy of a Parliament, prevents it from doing what the British government did - regardless of popular sentiment or support.
You kind of missed the point I was making.

But that's okay.

They didn't want to recreate the oppression of Crown rule, in their new central government. And they had specific ideas, thoroughly grounded in experience and education, about how to prevent it.
But they didn't prevent it, did they? By which I mean that the document they created, allowed for the oppression of others.

In the sense that their own version of oppression of others, carried on on an even worse scale and it lasted for generations.

In fact, it continues to this day. The well armed militia was meant to fight against oppression. I sometimes wonder how the founders would spin in their graves if the descendants of slaves and Native Americans armed themselves in the way that the US colonists armed themselves.. In other words, your founding fathers and their Constitution guaranteed rights to white males only. Which kind of makes the reliance on their actions during that time as proof of rising against tyranny, eyebrow raising at a minimum.
 
Native Americans armed themselves in the way that the US colonists armed themselves.. .

ahem:
A primary analytical tool of the Little Bighorn Archeological project was Firearms Identification. ... Indian arms included the .44 caliber Henry, .44 caliber Model 1866 Winchester, and the .44/.40 caliber Model 1873 Winchester, all
repeating rifles.

Meanwhile the us soldiers had single shot rifles.....................................they wuz outgunned.
 
ahem:
A primary analytical tool of the Little Bighorn Archeological project was Firearms Identification. ... Indian arms included the .44 caliber Henry, .44 caliber Model 1866 Winchester, and the .44/.40 caliber Model 1873 Winchester, all
repeating rifles.

Meanwhile the us soldiers had single shot rifles.....................................they wuz outgunned.
Custer was allotted a battery of three Gatling guns. He thought they'd slow down the column and left them in the boxes.
 
Hey, couldn't guns also establish a tyranny? Like a slave-labor empire?
It could cetainly establish fief-doms, where freedom of movement is basically under Martial Law of the local militia.

Kinda like the good old days of "shoot-out at the OK corral".
 
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