what?
you are still holding this perception, conscious or otherwise, to be wrong, correct?
what is this "underlying nature" refrain of yours?
I am not holding the perception to be wrong, per se, merely illusory.
Just as evidence is not wrong but one's interpretation of that evidence can be.
For example, a mirage is not "wrong"... it remains what it is... a mirage.
It is only when one claims the mirage to be more than what it is... to be the actual thing it is perceived to be (such as water on the road, for example)... that one could consider not the thing itself to be wrong but the interpretation.
As for what the "underlying nature" refrain of mine is... I guess you could just read the thread?
But on the assumption that you won't: RoG's (and others') arguments that "free-will" exists stem from their conscious perception of activity that they define as free-will: the consciousness perceives "choice" to be a conscious activity of selection between alternatives, for example.
But starting from this position - as they do despite protestation to the contrary by some - they fail to even consider the nature of interactions between the underlying microcosm... between molecules, atoms, quarks etc, where activity is not "free" but seemingly either determined, or random (e.g. non-caused).
Furthermore Regular0ldguy set up a scenario of "perfect causation" - i.e. every event is caused... no non-caused events... and where there is no randomness. He holds that free-will exists within this scenario as more than just an illusion of our consciousness.
Unfortunately his only arguments toward this end stem from the point of view of conscious perception of the activity (e.g. the "I can reflect and choose, therefore free-will exists"). It can thus speak nothing about the underlying nature of the activity.
And yet he uses these arguments to try to support the position that free-will is more than merely a conscious perception.
Hope that sufficiently summarises the current position for you.