Tesla vs Einstein

Yes. For example, suppose a particle has mass $$m$$ and electric charge $$q$$. Then the force on it due to gravity $$g$$ will be $$mg$$ and the force due to an applied electric field $$E$$ will be $$Eq$$. The acceleration of the particle will then, assuming the electric and gravitational fields are the in the same direction, which they often are not:

$$a = g + \frac{Eq/m}$$

The difference is only in acceleration but it is still following F=ma principle. Consider fan. It can be rotated by Lorentz Force. The fan also can be rotated by a mechanical force. Consider gravitational force also as a mechanical force. So, the effect of Lorentz Force or mechanical force(gravity) on a fan remains same. Electricity also can be generated from Gravity; as is done in Hydel Power Projects.

It is experimentally observed that we can alter $$q$$ and $$m$$ completely independently and therefore observe different accelerations under different conditions.

That is OK.

On the other hand, if it were really the case that gravity is a form of electromagnetism, then presumably we'd have $$m=q$$ and the acceleration would always be the same.

I am not saying $$m=q$$. But my speculation is that, $$m$$ can be co-related with the spin of a particle. ie more the spin, more the mass.
 
But if you consider that you are talking only about electromagnetism then...... Are electric field and magnetic field same /no difference between them ?

A particle is always in motion and never at rest. Rest is a relative concept. An electrically charged particle in motion will be having magnetic fields surrounding it; as in a Thumb Rule.
 
But if you consider that you are talking only about electromagnetism then...... Are electric field and magnetic field same /no difference between them ?
No.

A moving charged particle will be deflected towards the opposite potential in an electric field. A moving charged particle will be deflected sideways in a magnetic field.

In far field radiated electromagnetic fields, the wave (whether light, or radio waves, or whatever) can be approximated as two co-located magnetic and electric fields that propagate together. But close to the source of the wave that approximation does not hold.
 
One electro-magnetic and the other is gravitational.

A mass with a neutral charge will not feel a force from an electric field but it will feel a force from a gravitational field.
A charged mass will feel a force in an electric field as well as a force from the gravitational field. The force from an electrical field is much stronger than gravity.

If cross-product is done of Electrical Field and Magnetic Field, it will generate a force in the direction normal to both these fields. In the direction of this force, there will be no electrical field or magnetic field.
 
If cross-product is done of Electrical Field and Magnetic Field, it will generate a force in the direction normal to both these fields. In the direction of this force, there will be no electrical field or magnetic field.
Huh? Why does the field disappear?
 
If cross-product is done of Electrical Field and Magnetic Field, it will generate a force in the direction normal to both these fields. In the direction of this force, there will be no electrical field or magnetic field.
Incorrect in three ways.

1) Charged particles moving through fields generate different forces depending on whether they are moving through an electrical field or a magnetic field, so the two can't be equated.

2) The cross product of both fields is something of a meaningless number. The cross product of the particle's vector and either field does result in a force, which is what you may be thinking of. They are not the same for the two fields.

3) You can choose a direction for a charged particle to move through a magnetic field where no force is generated. This does not mean that there is no field; it just means that you've chosen a direction that does not cross flux lines.
 
Incorrect in three ways.

1) Charged particles moving through fields generate different forces depending on whether they are moving through an electrical field or a magnetic field, so the two can't be equated.

2) The cross product of both fields is something of a meaningless number. The cross product of the particle's vector and either field does result in a force, which is what you may be thinking of. They are not the same for the two fields.

3) You can choose a direction for a charged particle to move through a magnetic field where no force is generated. This does not mean that there is no field; it just means that you've chosen a direction that does not cross flux lines.

A quark particle has electrical charge as well as magnetism due to its spin. This quack particle can be considered as a charge particle in the magnetic field of other quack particle. Similarly, the other quack particle also can be considered as a charge particle in the magnetic field of previous quark particle. So, both these quack particles can experience mechanical force towards each other due to their electrical charge and spin or magnetism.
 
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