danshawen:
I think that further attempts by me to engage you in a conversation about physics are not likely to be productive. You ignore most of the substantive objections I raise against your ideas. Failing to address objections if not the way to have an honest discussion.
I also get the strong impression that while I am talking about physics, you're talking about ... something not physics. A lot of the time, what you write reads like a kind of stream-of-consciousness fantasy that you invent anew for each post that you make. Without any critical analysis of your own ideas, you can't ever really hope to learn anything or make any progress.
I think maybe you just want to play at doing physics, rather than actually doing it.
As I stated, the Lorentz transformations are not in doubt. Neither are the basic assumptions on which they are based.
Then you must now agree that the interval is invariant in different frames. Right?
The sole thing that is at issue here, and upon which Minkowski's invariant interval is based, is the idea that time itself IS PROPORTIONAL TO j x c x t.
That's meaningless nonsense. That 't' in there is supposed to be the time variable, isn't it?
The use of imaginary numbers to construct pseudo-4-vectors can be a useful mathematical device, but that's all it is. There's no deep physical significance to that particular mathematical device, and it is certainly not a necessary device for doing relativity.
Let's examine this a little more closely, because I see something else wrong here. Time seems to be proportional to itself, so evidently he considered c to be only a scaling factor.
Previously you wrote something like "Time = t= ict ", and then you divided both sides by t (the time) to get ic=1, a crazy conclusion. The problem is in the initial claim, obviously. Look, let's start with an obviously wrong statement: 1=7. Now multiply both sides of the equation by x and we get 1x = 7x. Now multiply by i, just for good measure, and we have ix=7ix. And hey! Look what happens if we divide both sides by x: i= 7i. Wow. Deep. And fundamentally wrong.
Garbage in, garbage out. That's what went wrong with your t = ict.
Understand?
This is exactly what is wrong, and in a sense, would be wrong in my analysis as well, if I had not explained that:
Omega = angular velocity = 2 x pi x f = (2 x pi)/t, which has the dimensions 1/t.
Angular velocity having dimensions of 1/time is true, but irrelevant to your previous error.
Two photons, bound by whatever mechanism results in photon-photon creation of a particle of matter, creates a situation internally WHERE THE LORENTZ TRANSFORMATIONS DO NOT APPLY, other than for some sort of time dilation that may be different from the linear case, and an internal spin mode of propagation that >c. It is elementary that if the photons are counter-rotating, the effective value for omega is 2 x omega, and this would mean that TIME BEHAVES VERY DIFFERENTLY INSIDE OF MATTER than it does in linear fashion. Since the fundamental assumption for the Lorentz transformations is that the speed of light can never be exceeded, I suppose that I have broken something.
This is meaningless nonsense. Can you see that? You're just making stuff up on the spot. No thought. No analysis. You're just acting out a kind of personal fantasy that you're doing physics. Sorry if that sounds harsh, but that's what you're doing.
I have shown that inside of elementary particles of matter, time is proportional to 1/c, and they propagate >c, and in the domain of bound energy, time is proportional to the reciprocal of the speed of light.
You have shown nothing.
I have repeatedly asked you to present a mathematical argument for your ideas. You have repeatedly ignored my requests and pretended that I haven't made them. I think this is because you do not actually understand the mathematics of relativity. In fact, nothing I've seen from you so far leads me to think that you can do any maths beyond beginners' algebra, and you're even shaky on that.
You have admitted that the Lorentz transformations do not apply to uniform rotation.
I wrote no such thing.
I have just demonstrated, this situation rates more detailed consideration BECAUSE I have BROKEN MINKOWSKI'S basic assumption about his invariant interval.
It's not an assumption. You have been given a
proof. You say you accept the Lorentz transformations. Therefore, you are logically required to accept the invariance of Minkowski's interval.
Do you accept logic, or reject it? Please let me know, so I know for sure whether I'm completely wasting my time with you or not.
If the speed of light is just a scaling factor, it cannot be proportional to both t AND 1/t.
Where did anybody say that the speed of light is proportional to t or 1/t? What are you talking about?
We aren't talking about simple unity here. If you cannot replace c by 1/c in every equation Minkowski wrote, then his interval does not apply to matter equally as well as it does to energy, the way that E/m = c^2 does.
This is nonsensical rubbish. Can you see that?
You are hands down the top expert on dimensional analysis on this forum, or anywhere else James R. If anyone can spot an error in this part of my logic, it is you. Be that as it may, it probably would not rise to the level of an actual paper unless it tore Minkowski's interval to shreds. Does it?
Do you want to stop pretending to do physics and to actually learn some physics, or do you want to continue with your playful fantasy that you're doing physics?
The error in your "logic" is that you have failed to accept that the mathematical proof that has been presented to you is unassailable, given your own stated acceptance of the Lorentz transformations.
Do you accept logic, or defy it?