He did no such thing.Using the Lorentz transformations, rpenner proved that the interval is invariant when you change reference frames. He did it right here in this thread.
Sorry, my mistake. It was przyk, here:He did no such thing.
It doesn't matter how he got to the invariance of the interval. If you accept the Lorentz transformations, you must logically accept the invariance of the interval. You have been given the proof.Minkowski didn't "prove" that t = sqrt(-1) x ct either, which was where Minkowski began his development of an invariant interval and the static geometry that goes along with it to replace the speed of light.
That is a separate matter. Let us deal with the matter of the invariance of the interval first, then we can move on to other issues.Simultaneity was simply the cheat he used to make things appear static and mathematically consistent with a static geometry. And you all fell for it.
In my post before this one, I showed you a proof that time intervals transform in the same way as time coordinates.Whenever your mathematics considers an instant of time and equivocates that with an interval of time, that is a cheat, the same way that dividing by zero is. You are only fooling yourselves.
Correct.You can't "prove" something that is an assumption to begin with.
We can get to discussing my understanding of time once we sort out this matter of your acceptance of mathematical proof.Minkowski didn't understand what "time" was. Neither do you, or rpenner.
The "proof", which I said was "good", as in "good math", is only valid if you buy into its underlying assumptions. I don't.Please read this post and get back to me as to whether you will now admit that the invariance of the space-time interval follows form the Lorentz transformations.
Light isn't special to space-time, but the speed of light in vacuum, c, is a physical quantity which relates to the physical nature of space-time.
Deep enough to satisfy even someone as skeptical as me. There is ample to ponder here, at last.That's atrociously bad reading. As everyone who does physics knows, and as you have been told many times to little effect, quantities in physics are not numbers, but have a magnitude which is a combination of a number and some unit.
So 1 = 100 is wrong, but 1 meter = 100 centimeters is correct.
Likewise 1 meter + 1 kilometer is a sensible sum, as is 1 foot + 12 centimeters is a sensible sum, but 1 kelvin + 1 kilogram is not sensible because the units are incompatible.
As an accident of human designed units, time and space are not measure in compatible units. Thus if one is to relate time and space in a single geometry, it makes sense to use compatible units. That relation renders all velocities as pure numbers as v = [quantity of space in compatible units] / [quantity of time in compatible units] has no net units.
So we go to the test-theory of relativity:
$$ t' = \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - K \vec{v}^2}} \left( t + K \vec{v} \cdot \vec{x} \right) \\ \vec{x}' = \vec{x} + \left( \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - K \vec{v}^2}} - 1 \right) \frac{1}{ \vec{v}^2} \left( \vec{v} \cdot \vec{x} \right) \vec{v} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - K \vec{v}^2}} t \vec{v} $$
And since 1859 we have had experimental evidence that K is a positive (and therefore non-zero) quantity with units of [TIME]² / [DISTANCE]² .
Therefore there must be some physical speed such that $$K v^2 = 1$$.
So K is a physical constant which relates [TIME]² to [DISTANCE]² and so that t is measured in the same units as √K x. Likewise we have for a free particle:
m² = K² E² – K p² ; p = K E v
Now light is just some physical phenomena whose speed is unimportant except that all massless phenomena which convey energy and momentum have to travel at speed 1/√K and light in a vacuum acts like a massless phenomena which convey energy and momentum. Since light, in a vacuum, travels at c, we know what K is.
Because in the m=0 case, we have K E² = p² = K² E² v² so 1 = K v².
So K > 0 which relates to the nature of how space and time are one thing, means ct and x are measured in the same units in the only way that makes sense in relativity. Light isn't special to space-time, but the speed of light in vacuum, c, is a physical quantity which relates to the physical nature of space-time.
Using the Lorentz transformations, rpenner proved that the interval is invariant when you change reference frames. He did it right here in this thread.
He did no such thing.
Actually, you will want to consult post #194 where I demonstrated:Sorry, my mistake.
$$ \left( (A' - B') \right)^{\textrm{T}} \eta (C'-D') = \left( (\Lambda A - \Lambda B) \right)^{\textrm{T}} \eta (\Lambda C- \Lambda D) = \left( \Lambda (A - B) \right)^{\textrm{T}} \eta \Lambda (C-D) = (A - B)^{\textrm{T}} \Lambda^{\textrm{T}} \eta \Lambda (C-D) = (A - B)^{\textrm{T}} \eta' (C-D)$$
With $$ \eta' = \dots
\\ = \eta + 0
\\ = \eta $$
Because $$ \begin{pmatrix} 0 & \vec{\rho}^{\textrm{T}} \\ K \vec{\rho} & 0 \end{pmatrix} \eta + \eta \begin{pmatrix} 0 & K \vec{\rho}^{\textrm{T}} \\ \vec{\rho} & 0 \end{pmatrix} = 0 $$ as you may verify.
So K=0 means relativity of standard of rest gives Galilean Relativity with Galilean transforms, Newtonian velocity composition and absolute time, while $$K=c^{-2}$$ gives Special Relativity with Lorentz transforms, Einstein velocity composition, and an invariant measure of space-time intervals.
Good questions for someone who claims to have rational, communicable reasons for accepting one but not the other.So, let's be clear about what you accept or do not accept.
Do you accept the Lorentz transformations are correct?
Do you accept that the invariance of the interval follows logically if the Lorentz transformations are correct?
Do you accept that time intervals transform the same way as time coordinates, according to the Lorentz transformations?
The Lorentz transformations cannot be rejected without rejecting time dilation. This effect has been experimentally verified well beyond any reasonable doubt. You can't reject that unless you are insane or willfully ignorant. I am neither.Actually, you will want to consult post #194 where I demonstrated:
This was analogous to proving the invariance of Euclidean geometry dot products under rotations, with a trivial demonstration that the invariant measure of the interval is preserved by Lorentz transforms.
Good questions for someone who claims to have rational, communicable reasons for accepting one but not the other.
Time may be related to the speed of light, but time is not, as Minkowski posited, EQIVALENT TO the speed of light. For one thing, he completely forgot about rotation, and evidently, that can be a little faster. At least now we understand, RELATIVE TO WHAT?
Relative to the spin zero boson that is an excitation of the Higgs quantum field, which is the reason the whole universe isn't spinning even if galaxies do. Who says they aren't all spinning around each other also? Who needs dark energy? That spin would cause a Doppler shift also. And how much energy would that be?
E=mc^2 was Einstein's baby, all the way.
It was his derivation, and it was clumsy owing to the lack of sophistication of his Newtonian audience, but it was all his, and there is no doubt that it was his.No it was not....
On the one hand we have tens of thousands of physicists who have no problem with Minkowski's maths and do not believe him to be an idiot.Credit Minkowski with aborting our understanding of time itself by using photonic simultaneity to propose we use static geometry to understand something dynamic like time. Idiot.
That is an accurate picture, yes. I don't care. I've had this itch to get off my back about Minkowski literally for longer than there has been an internet, Ophiolite.On the one hand we have tens of thousands of physicists who have no problem with Minkowski's maths and do not believe him to be an idiot.
On the other hand we have an anonymous internet poster who indulges in rants and rages.
Who to provisionally accept as having the more accurate view of reality? Not such a tough one when you think about it.