Yes, religions are not godsent ideologies, but manmade social guidelines imo. But anyway, it was a theory I remembered, or some other connection between Jesus and Julius.
Can we be sure of their date of birth etc? Science has moved forward and if we can accurately figure out the time of birth of ancient egyptians etc , then Jesus would be easy.
I really do not believe he was the person the Bible portraits him as, and therefore it would be interesting to find out why he was described this way and by who?
(I know I could google this stuff and find out for myself, but that would be less fun.)
For the purpose of fulfilling a prophecy.
We have no real historical evidence for Jesus' life (contrary to the quackings of the faithful) but there
is some reason to believe he--or someone the Christ character was based on--was born around that time in Nazareth. The best evidence is found in the gospels of Luke and Matthew, each of whom provide vastly different accounts of the nativity. In Luke, Joseph and Mary begin their journey in Nazareth, and it is there Jesus is "conceived" by the Holy Spirit. They go to Bethlehem for a "worldwide" census, which took place in 6 or 7AD and required the population of the Empire to return to their ancestral hometowns to be counted for taxation purposes.
The first problem here is simple: The census never happened. There is no historical record of such a census taking place. One would think that an upheaval such as requiring every citizen in the Roman world to return to their ancestral homes would have left an indelible mark on history. And yet, there's nothing.
The second problem is that this simply is not how Roman censuses were conducted. Luke claims this occurred under the reign of Augustus, but it is known that the censuses taken during his reign only included Roman citizens. Nor was there any practice in which citizens were required to return to their hometowns, for obvious reasons, as separating a landowner from his land would have defeated the purpose of a census for taxation.
Matthew's story is quite different, and reverses the order of events. Here, Mary and Joseph already live in Bethlehem, so there's no need to travel there. Jesus is born, and they flee because Harod wants the baby dead. They eventually wind up living in Nazareth, which is how Jesus, according to Matty, ends up being called a Nazarene.
Nothing glaring about that, except that the two stories take place about ten years apart, because Harod died in 4BC, and the ascension of Harod's son to the throne following the father's death is what prompts the flight to Nazareth in the first place. This disparity alone is difficult to reconcile, and there are plenty more to be found (no mention of the census in Matthew, the addition of the dreams, the Magi, and the star, etc).
Modern Biblical scholars tend to believe that Luke is mistaken, but closer inspection of Matthew tells us that the gospel is really just a patchwork of older stories (the Slaughter of the Innocents story is too similar to the peril an infant Moses found himself in upon his own birth to be a coincidence) and misunderstandings (the mistranslation of Hebrew "almah" (young woman) to the Greek "parthenos" (virgin)), so their "accurate" gospel is really just folklore.
The point here is that great lengths were gone to by Luke and Matthew to ensure certain criteria were met so that a man from Nazarene could somehow also be born in the City of David. If he were a wholly fictional character, they would have done away with the Nazarene bit and simply made him of the line of David. This subterfuge implies that the authors were trying to ret-con a real man's history so that he may fulfill a prophecy.