I hate to “lower” this discussion, but Acharya S?!?? It was argued that the Gospels were composed late second century in that article! That is an extremely fringe position. A definite
minority view. Most of that article seems to be a bunch of fringe positions thrown together. But for the sake of argument, lets go through the quotation:
“”””””It is very telling that the earliest Christian documents, the Epistles attributed to "Paul," never discuss a historical background of Jesus but deal exclusively with a spiritual being who was known to all gnostic sects for hundreds to thousands of years.”””””””””
The Gospels themselves do not do what that wants Paul to do! Anyways, Paul refers to a historical person who he thought was the climax of Israel’s history or “ as the prophet and messianic agent commissioned by God to bring about the definitive divine rule (O’ Collins, Christology). I recently wrote a paper on Paul and Jesus addressing basically that quote (without ever seeing it). I may incorporate it into my article which can be found here:
http://www.geocities.com/ilgwamh/paulandjesus.html
I argued that there is an appropriate continuity between Jesus and Paul when viewed in the light of Jewish eschatology.
“””””The few "historical" references to an actual life of Jesus cited in the Epistles are demonstrably interpolations and forgeries,””””””””
Those who argue that verses like 1 Cor 15 are interpolations are in the
minority.
“”””””as are, according to Wheless, the Epistles themselves, as they were not written by "Paul."”””””””
What? It is WIDELY accepted that Paul authored quite a few of the epistles attributed to him. Many scholars will however argue that Paul did not author II Thess, Col, Eph, and the Pastoral Letters (I and II Tim and Titus). The rest are considered Pauline. This is yet another fringe position. A
minority view.
“””””””Aside from the brief reference to Pontius Pilate at 1 Timothy 6:13, an epistle dated ben Yehoshua to 144 CE and thus not written by Paul, the Pauline literature (as pointed out by Edouard Dujardin) "does not refer to Pilate, or the Romans, or Caiaphas, or the Sanhedrin, or Herod, or Judas, or the holy women, or any person in the gospel account of the Passion, and that it also never makes any allusion to them; lastly, that it mentions absolutely none of the events of the Passion, either directly or by way of allusion."”””””””
I view 1 Tim as duetero-Pauline so that is irrelevant to me. Of course, this is fallacious reasoning at its finest. A section from the article of mine that I linked above should serve to illustrate this:
The Danger of Exegesis that Employs What the Evangelist did not say
There is a dangerous trap here that many fall into. It is often noted that Paul does not mention the virgin birth or that he never mentions an empty tomb etc. How could he have never mentioned such pivotal views in all his writings if he accepted them as true? First, an aside is necessary on the virgin birth: I do not accept the historicity of the Matthean and Lukan infancy narratives and it is irrelevant to my Christian faith as to whether Jesus was born of a virgin or not. Does a non-mention of the virgin birth by Paul or the author of Mark or any other 1st century author mean they did not know about it or disagreed with the idea?. From Raymond Brown “The NT writers certainly knew more of the Christian tradition than they were able or chose to convey in their writings; John 21:25 is specific about that. Therefore we should maintain a certain distrust of negative arguments from silence, as if the failure to write meant the failure to know. For instance, only Matt and Luke tell us about Jesus' virginal conception. Failure of other NT writers to mention it does not necessarily mean that they did not know of it (or, a fortiori, would deny it); yet neither can we assume that the knowledge was widespread. On the level of the literal sense, exegesis that embraces what the evangelist did not actually convey in writing becomes very speculative.”5 Those who argue that Paul does not speak of a historical Jesus are clearly wrong and those who want to modify their argument and say Paul does not speak enough of a historical Jesus should know that they are in the boonies of “speculation-ville” and the slums of “argument from silence-land”. A devastating citation, in regards to that position, from Raymond Brown: Thus in the 50s of the 1st century Paul produced the earliest surviving Christian documents: 1 Thess, Gal, Phil, Phlm, I and II Cor, and Rom. There is a somewhat different tone and emphasis to each, corresponding to what Paul perceived as the needs of the respective community at a particular time. This fact should make us cautious about generalizations in reference to Pauline theology. Paul was not a systematic theologian but an evangelizing preacher, giving strong emphasis at a certain moment to one aspect of faith in Jesus, at another moment to another aspect—indeed to a degree that may seem to us inconsistent. On the grounds that Paul does not mention an idea or practice, very adventurous assumptions are sometimes made about his views. For example, the Eucharist is mentioned in only one Pauline writing and there largely because of abuses at the Eucharistic meal at Corinth. Except for that situation scholars might be misled to assume that there was no Eucharist in the Pauline churches, reasoning that Paul could scarcely written so much without mentioning such an important aspect of Christian life. 6
5 Raymond Brown, Introduction to the New Testament, p. 38-39 (ABRL DOUBLEDAY, 1997).
6. Ibid, p. 6.
“””””””Dujardin additionally relates that other early "Christian" writings such as Revelation do not mention any historical details or drama.””””””””
Revelation falls into a distinct literary genre doesn’t it? I don’t think it happens to be “contemporary biographies.”
“”””””””” Mangasarian notes that Paul also never quotes from Jesus's purported sermons and speeches, parables and prayers, nor does he mention Jesus's supernatural birth or any of his alleged wonders and miracles, all which one would presume would be very important to his followers, had such exploits and sayings been known prior to "Paul."”””””””””””
Paul assumes his readers knew the Jesus story in a lot of instances. Anyways, look at the thoughts I quoted from F.F. Bruce on Paul and HJ material. Bruce concludes with: "In short, the outline of the gospel story as we can trace it in the
writings of Paul agrees with the outline which we find elsewhere in the New Testament and in the four Gospels in particular.
We see from the Bruce citation (on the website I linked) that Paul does in fact mention a good number of historical things concerning Jesus. It should be noted that the Gospels do not present us with biographies of Jesus in the modern sense. We do not know what Jesus looked like, we do not know what type of food he preferred nor what he did for most of his life. The Gospels concern themselves primarily with Jesus’ ministry and the genuine Pauline epistles line up with the thoughts regarding Jesus’ ministry found in the Gospels. The indication here is that Paul accepted a historical Jesus. The evidence dictates that Paul thought Jesus was “commissioned by God to bring about the definitive divine rule.” Pauline thought was not so much concerned with the details of Jesus’ life as he was with his ministry and death and resurrection. There was, is, and always will be an appropriate continuity between Jesus and Paul.
Vinnie said:That Jesus had a brother named James is well attested independently by both Mark and Paul. Paul even claims to have known James, one of the Lord’s brothers and that information comes from a primary and contemporary source during James’ lifetime.
Tiassa responded: We need to consider your use of the word independent. When verifying the Bible, independent testaments to the historicity of the Bible come from outside the Bible. Books of the Bible are not independent of one another. The prophetic books, for instance, do not "independently" confirm one another./
Some books of the Bible ARE independent of one another. To claim otherwise is nonsense. The “various” individual compositions were later collected into a whole. Accoding to the critical consensus, Paul wrote independent of the Gospel of Mark. Thus, as historical documents they are independent sources. Note that I did not include Matthew and Luke’s references to the brother of Jesus because they COPIED off of Mark. Ergo, they cannot be said to be independent witnesses to this. The synoptics constitute a stream of tradition. Omitting the Lukan and Matthean references was deliberate. Had some material been found in Q or L or M I would have included it. That is why I referenced the material in John and Jude as well.
Of Josephus: I don't understand the relationship between Josephus and Christians; when Christians find what they think supports their arguments, Josephus is a great source; otherwise, he was a traitor and a liar who sold out his Jewish heritage for the Romans. In other words, anyone who wants to can call Josephus' writings under question. However, I'm one of those people that takes Josephus as Josephus:
Two thoughts on that:
1. Lots of bad and uninformed apologists out there.
2. Josephus, like the Gospels, is not inerrant and infallible.
“””””””From the "Kirby" page referred to in the essay:”””””””
That referenced the Testimonium Flavanium. I am using the shorter reference in Antiquities 20. What is the relevance?
In versions of the Antiquities of the Jews by Josephus, edited by Christians, are two passages describing Jesus. Neither is in the Jewish version of the Josephus's Antiquities. The longer passage, the so called Testimonium Flavianum (18:3:3), is cited by Christians as independent confirmation of Jesus' existence and resurrection. It reads:
About this time there lived Jesus, a wise man, if indeed one ought to call him a man. For he was one who wrought surprising feats and was a teacher of such people as accept the truth gladly. He won over many Jews and many of the Greeks. He was the Messiah. When Pilate, upon hearing him accused by men of the highest standing amongst us, had condemned him to be crucified, those who had in the first place come to love him did not give up their affection for him. On the third day he appeared to them restored to life, for the prophets of God had prophesied these and countless other marvellous things about him. And the tribe of the Christians, so called after him, has still to this day not disappeared.
Though this passage was quoted by Eusebius writing in about 320_AD, earlier Christian writers make no reference to Josephus's commendation of Jesus even when it would have suited them, as they must surely have done had it existed. Indeed Origen, writing in about 250_AD, puzzled:
Though he [Josephus] did not admit our Jesus to be the Christ he none the less gave witness to so much righteousness in James.
Elsewhere he adds:
although [Josephus] disbelieved in Jesus as Christ,
contradicting the extant text. Plainly Origen's version of Josephus's works did not have the passage to which we are referring, but by 340 AD the version used by Eusebius did. Jerome's Latin version has the insertion but it is less assertive, rendering He was the Messiah by He was believed to be the Messiah. It shows that the text of Josephus has been altered. Who would or could have altered it?
The relevance of this? This pertains to the Testimonium Flavanium. I did not bring that up. Are you simply wanting to discuss it or is there some relevance I am missing? Origen seems to affirm the shorter passage that I appealed to in my article. Yes, we are also aware that the current Testimonium Flavanium was not in Origin’s copy of Josephus. That is a given.
Many scholars think this too is forged. If not it confirms that a previous mention had been made of Jesus. An unfavourable reference to Jesus in the original version must have been excised to render it publishable but Christian copyists, finding that their crudely censored versions contained no reference to Jesus felt obliged to insert one. So what Origen could not see Eusebius could. More space is devoted to John the Baptist in our editions of the Antiquities than to the master whose coming the gospels assure us he was proclaiming. A section covering the career of Jesus in considerably more detail than the short passage we now have must have been deleted.
Kirby does away with that argument on the site by noting another example of where the same thing jas occurred.
But most interesting there is the if Jesus was so important, why devote more space to John the Baptist?
Who said Jesus was important to Josephus?
“”””””But consider that, given the controversy surrounding 18.3.3, what we're left with in 20.9.1 is a passing reference to Christ. To the other, though, and recalling that Antiquities 18.3.3 appears to be absent from original versions of the volume, the passage at 20.9.1 presents some interesting challenges, namely one of the subjective bases of the assertion of censorship:””””””””””””
The challenges rest on those who wish to argue interpolation. The shorter reference has presumption as it relays a non-Christian witness to Jesus. As any sober canon of textual criticism should tell us that unless there is reason to doubt it we accept it as genuine. Where the burden of proof lies is extremely clear. If it cannot be demonstrated that it was interpolated there is no good reason to doubt the passage.
Note that at best, your Origen argument simply says that the current Antiquities 18 reference to Jesus found in all extant manuscripts was not there. It does not necessarily conclude that there was NO reference at all. That fact fits in with both "total" and "partial" authenticity advocates. Anyways, Kirby agrees with you that Ant 18 was totally interpolated.
“””””””More space is devoted to John the Baptist in our editions of the Antiquities than to the master whose coming the gospels assure us he was proclaiming.””””””””
Josephus knew or accepted that? I think Josephus contradicts the Gospels and says JBap did not baptize for the remission of sin. Of course, scholars like Crossan and Morton Smith think Josephus was wrong here. Otherwise one wonders how John came to be referred as the Baptist to begin with.
Walker says, "No literate person of his own time mentioned him in any known writing." Eminent Hellenistic Jewish historian and philosopher Philo (20 B.C.E.-50 C.E.), alive at the purported time of Jesus, makes no mention of him. Nor do any of the some 40 other historians who wrote during the first one to two centuries of the Common Era. "Enough of the writings of [these] authors...remain to form a library. Yet in this mass of Jewish and Pagan literature, aside from two forged passages in the works of a Jewish author, and two disputed passages in the works of Roman writers, there is to be found no mention of Jesus Christ."
I’ll address this later. I’ve discussed this on the sec web before. I’ll try to find the thread, link to it and repost some comments here.
“”””””See, that's the problem; I don't see a bunch of independent evidence. I see books of the Bible used to "verify" each other historically, some passages in history which have dubious origins, and the attestations of several apologists for Christian faith, hardly the most "independent" collection of sources.””””””””
Mark and Paul are independent of one another as is the reference in Ant 20. It should be noted that these references lend support to one another as well. Neither, Josephus, Jude, Paul, nor Mark are stating something “unheard of”. The at least threefold independent attestation presents a strong historical argument.
So a guy named James says, "I'm the brother of Jesus"? I'm sorry, but in the millennia since, the scope of Jesus' brethren has grown considerably. What if you went before a court and described yourself as a "brother of Jesus"? In rhetoric, I might agree with that sense of fellowship, but what would it mean to history? Would you suddenly become independent verification that Jesus Christ lived and walked the earth as told in the Bible?
All the historical evidence dicates that there was a man named Jesus in the early first century with a brother named James. You are equivocating “independent” here. I use “independent” here in regard to historical reconstruction by "substantiated" sources. Mark is a combination of history and legend (or myth) but in the reference I quoted Mark has uneasy and embarrassing traditions about Jesus’ family. Matthew and Luke who drew off of Mark (markan priority) omit some of these I think. This seems to argue for the historicity of this material. Paul claims to have known and met James (which means his Galatians reference is contemporary and primary source material in regards to James and the claim that he was brother of the Lord). Josephus would have heard about the event he was describing earlier than when he wrote. He is a non-Christian source as well and his references to the so called Christ is not a Christian way of referring to Jesus. Sober historians who reconstruct ancient history (which has limited sources and a lot of unknowns) would find this to be solid evidence. As solid as it will get. Needless to say, there is a consensus that Jesus was a historical figure. Christ-mythicism is a fringe view. And the consensus that I speak of is composed of Christian, atheist, Jewish and other scholars.
Vinnie