How many sons has God got?

davewhite04

Valued Senior Member
Psalm 2:7
I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.


John 1:14
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth

Genesis 6:4
There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.
 
Genesis 6:4
There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.

And the follow up question is ...How many giants were in the earth in those days?
 
No. The follow up question was directed towards Christians, from a Christian.

Why are we told that Jesus is God's only son?
 
No. The follow up question was directed towards Christians, from a Christian.

Why are we told that Jesus is God's only son?

But how many giants were you told were in the earth in those days?

Jesus is God's only legitimate son. We don't speak of the others (fallen angels).
 
More than 6 billion and counting.

A common and confusing statement, based on bible research.

Genesis 6.
And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them, That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose. And the Lord said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years

As you can see, there is a obvious distinction between the "sons of God" and the "daughters of men". Obviously daughters of men give birth to boys and girls, which all come from men.

Then we get this direct from a prophets mouth.

Psalm 82:6
I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.

So maybe your right, maybe after the flood things changed, and Genesis 6 becomes obsolete.
 
No. The follow up question was directed towards Christians, from a Christian.

Why are we told that Jesus is God's only son?

Davewhite04: Scripture does not say Jesus is God's "only" son. It says Jesus is God's "only begotten" son. Notice the verses you presented in your OP.

Psalm 2:7
I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

John 1:14
And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth

Genesis 6:4
There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.
The pre-human Jesus is the only angelic Son directly created by Almighty God. For that reason, he is referred to as "begotten" or "only begotten". All of God's other angelic sons (and everything else, for that matter) were also created by Jehovah, but Jehovah did the creating by means of or through Jesus Christ.

"{2} He [the Word/Jesus] was in the beginning with God.
{3} All things came into being THROUGH Him [Jesus], and apart from Him nothing that exists came into being." (John 1:2-3 -- Weymouth New Testament)

Alter2Ego
 
Davewhite04: Scripture does not say Jesus is God's "only" son. It says Jesus is God's "only begotten" son. Notice the verses you presented in your OP.

Psalm 2:7
I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

.
This says that God has at least 2 begotten sons. You even quote the question as an answer which makes no sense.

Psalm 2:7
I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.


The pre-human Jesus is the only angelic Son directly created by Almighty God. For that reason, he is referred to as "begotten" or "only begotten". All of God's other angelic sons (and everything else, for that matter) were also created by Jehovah, but Jehovah did the creating by means of or through Jesus Christ.

"{2} He [the Word/Jesus] was in the beginning with God.
{3} All things came into being THROUGH Him [Jesus], and apart from Him nothing that exists came into being." (John 1:2-3 -- Weymouth New Testament)

Alter2Ego

I agree that Jesus or let's just call him Son of God, because in a spiritual sense he is, it's just that He has been in at least 2 bodies. Once a warrior king and once as a man of peace, the Son of Man once again.

The Jews are correct in thinking that a man of King David's ilk will be The Messiah, call him Jesus if you want?!
 
This says that God has at least 2 begotten sons. You even quote the question as an answer which makes no sense.

Davewhite04:
Scripture speaks of a single "begotten" son of God. Below are the two verses from your OP where the word "begotten" is used.


Psalm 2:7
I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

John 1:14
And
the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth

The verse at Psalms 2:7 and the verse at John 1:14 are both talking about the same begotten son, namely, Jesus Christ.

Alter2Ego
 
Davewhite04:
Scripture speaks of a single "begotten" son of God. Below are the two verses from your OP where the word "begotten" is used.


Psalm 2:7
I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee.

John 1:14
And
the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth

The verse at Psalms 2:7 and the verse at John 1:14 are both talking about the same begotten son, namely, Jesus Christ.

Alter2Ego

Do you know how silly that sounds? Our God is not a God of confusion.

It is blatantly obvious that He called David and Jesus both the begotten sons....

Why the hell would He say it to David, the same thing that He said to jesus? They were different bodies, both The Son of Man.
 
Do you know how silly that sounds? Our God is not a God of confusion.

It is blatantly obvious that He called David and Jesus both the begotten sons....

Why the hell would He say it to David, the same thing that He said to jesus? They were different bodies, both The Son of Man.
Davewhite04:
Whose fault is it that you are ignoring context (surrounding words, verses, and chapters). Who was it that took it upon him/herself to cherry pick Psalms 2:7, to the exclusion of the rest of what the chapter is actually saying? Was that my idea or yours?

BTW: If you already know the answer to your own question, to the point you are now getting ticked off by my rebuttal with your: "Why the hell" comment, why did you ask for answers from other Christians at Post 5?


No. The follow up question was directed towards Christians, from a Christian.

Why are we told that Jesus is God's only son?

The context to Psalms 2:7 indicates David was not applying the word "begotten" to himself at all.


Alter2Ego
 
Davewhite04:
Whose fault is it that you are ignoring context (surrounding words, verses, and chapters). Who was it that took it upon him/herself to cherry pick Psalms 2:7, to the exclusion of the rest of what the chapter is actually saying? Was that my idea or yours?


The so called "cherry picking" of verses is vital to the questions I ask. How you can't see that David blatantly say that God said to him that on that day He begot David as a son, full stop, regardless of your "context" comment.

BTW: If you already know the answer to your own question, to the point you are now getting ticked off by my rebuttal with your: "Why the hell" comment, why did you ask for answers from other Christians at Post 5?

Because I want Christians thoughts as to how open minded some Christians are.

The context to Psalms 2:7 indicates David was not applying the word "begotten" to himself at all.


Alter2Ego

Who was he applying "begotten" to?
 
The so called "cherry picking" of verses is vital to the questions I ask. How you can't see that David blatantly say that God said to him that on that day He begot David as a son, full stop, regardless of your "context" comment.

Davewhite04:

Not when it involves ignoring context. That is what you did when you isolated Psalms 2:7 and ignored the surrounding verses in same chapter (the context). The context indicates Psalms 2:7, written by David but inspired by God, was not with reference to David himself. I will show you the context shortly.


Alter2Ego
 
Davewhite04:

Not when it involves ignoring context. That is what you did when you isolated Psalms 2:7 and ignored the surrounding verses in same chapter (the context). The context indicates Psalms 2:7, written by David but inspired by God, was not with reference to David himself. I will show you the context shortly.


Alter2Ego

I know the context, a very overused word. I recommend looking at the Bible objectively and not subjectively, subjectively in this context :D as religion is a bad influence as it makes your mind up about things, when really it should be the other way round.
 
I know the context, a very overused word. I recommend looking at the Bible objectively and not subjectively, subjectively in this context :D as religion is a bad influence as it makes your mind up about things, when really it should be the other way round.

Davewhite04:

Which "overused word" are you referring to?

Despite your above claim that you know the context to Psalms 2:7, you have demonstrated that you do NOT know it. Proof of that is presented by the question raised in the title of your thread: "How many sons has God got?"

You also demonstrated you do not know the context to Psalms 2:7 when you raised the following question at Post 5: "Why are we told that Jesus is God's only son?"

Last but not least, if you knew the context to Psalms 2:7, you definitely would not be insisting that Psalms 2:7 is with reference to King David where he wrote: "I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee."

You insist the portion "Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee" should be applied to King David. The context, which I will be more than happy to show you, indicates those words were part of a prophecy that Jehovah instructed David to write. The prophecy was with reference to God's Messianic King, the resurrected Jesus Christ.

Let me know when you are ready, and I will show you the context.

Alter2Ego
 
Back
Top