How did a Jewish Rabbi (Jesus Christ) end up to be "son" of God?

In the fictional accounts of jesus, he is human. Just divinely endowed (according to the local harlots).

I think it was the roman empire of the first few centuries CE that firmly decreed that the jesus character was the 'son' of god.
 
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At what point did the early/later Christians decided that he was not human?
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M*W: Somewhere between 325 AD and 400 AD. The 'story' of Jesus had him crucified, died and risen, as divine, but Jesus wasn't believed to be divine until the early church fathers declared him to be divine between the years shown above.
 
Greetings,

Medicine Woman said:
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M*W: Somewhere between 325 AD and 400 AD. The 'story' of Jesus had him crucified, died and risen, as divine, but Jesus wasn't believed to be divine until the early church fathers declared him to be divine between the years shown above.
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Pardon?

Paul certainly saw Jesus as divine in mid 1st century.

The Gospel of John describes Jesus as divine in late 1st C, G.Matthew and G.Luke arguably too.

The Gnostics saw Jesus as some sort of divine entity in 2nd century - many describing him as a "phantasm" or spirit being, many others denying he ever came to earth in the flesh.

Many early Church fathers describe Jesus as divine in the early years without any mention of a historial life - e.g. 1 John, Naassene fragment, Hermas, to Diognetus, Ptolemy...

Jesus STARTED as a divine spiritual entity - but only LATER was seen as a historical figure.


Iasion
 
Constantine 1 made Christianity legal in 313 with the Edict of Milan. Then, in 325 AD, The Council of Nicaea was held "to resolve disagreements in the Church of Alexandria over the nature of Jesus in relationship to the Father; in particular, whether Jesus was of the same or merely of similar substance as God the Father."

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_Council_of_Nicaea
 
I must agree with Iason here: the earliest accounts of Jesus - the Bible, in other words - do indeed strongly suggest his divine nature.
 
The earliest Christian writings are those of Paul, followed by the gospel of Mark...both of which describe Jesus as divine in some sense. Its definitely not a later theological development.

What does the word 'Son' mean anyway. Does God have DNA?

Is God male? What determines God's maleness?
 
GeoffP said:
I must agree with Iason here: the earliest accounts of Jesus - the Bible, in other words - do indeed strongly suggest his divine nature.
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Devine, but not exclusively devine. Only in the sense that everyone is, and some don't recognize it.
 
Those "books" that seemed to make Jesus devine where the ones incorporated in this thing we know as the bible about the time of the Council of Nicaea. After having made Jesus devine, the books that showed Jesus as a mere mortal were supressed.

Was he devine? No. Was he a mere man? Yes and no. While he was a man born or woman, he was a messenger of the Most High.
 
broadandbeaver said:
Those "books" that seemed to make Jesus devine where the ones incorporated in this thing we know as the bible about the time of the Council of Nicaea.
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The council of Nicea was not formed to agree upon an official canon of texts for inclusion into a bible. The evolution of what we call the new testament is something that continued for a few hundred years beyond the time of Constantine.

Even in 1947 there was some controversy about how the last few verses of Mark in the new standard edition would be identified...verses which are now widely thought to be a much later interpolation.
 
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Medicine Woman said:
The 'story' of Jesus had him crucified, died and risen, as divine, but Jesus wasn't believed to be divine until the early church fathers declared him to be divine between the years shown above.
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Very interesting. Would you happen to have any texts on this?
 
broadandbeaver said:
Those "books" that seemed to make Jesus devine where the ones incorporated in this thing we know as the bible about the time of the Council of Nicaea. After having made Jesus devine, the books that showed Jesus as a mere mortal were supressed.
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Which ones?
 
Carcano said:
Sounds like some of these posts were inspired more by Dan Brown's Da Vinci Code than real history.

Biblical historian Bart Ehrman points out the ten major flaws in Brown's novel in this interview:
http://www.beliefnet.com/story/167/story_16783_1.html
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M*W: Dan Brown's book is not a credible document. The research he did was not original. He copied from others who did their homework on the subject.
 
Ah yes - Baighent and Lincoln and their lot. Those silly buggers were exposed on the BBC about 2 years ago. The "Ordre de Sion" was essentially a winetasting club.
 
GeoffP said:
Ah yes - Baighent and Lincoln and their lot. Those silly buggers were exposed on the BBC about 2 years ago. The "Ordre de Sion" was essentially a winetasting club.
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M*W: I was thinking more along the lines of Laurence Gardner, Ian Campbell, David Wood, Clive Prince, et al. I would be interested to learn more about their "exposure."
 
But isn't their stuff essentially more of the same? The old bloodline thingy?
 
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