I feel these are important points to agree on.
1) The inertial reference frame is the frame before the object is dropped above the Earth.
You have to choose the origin. Specify a place.
The center of gravity of the combined object+Earth system is our reference point, and remains so throughout.
Before you can decide anything else you have to decide the physical origin of the coordinate system. While you're thinking this through you should ask yourself where Galileo's origin was.
Galileo made the forgivable mistake of assuming that he stayed in this frame when he dropped the object, but this is of course not true because the Earth began falling towards the object by obeying Newton's Third Law.
Let's get past step [1] before we jump to any conclusions.
2) This is obviously a 2-body problem.
You misunderstand. Whether it's a 1- or 2-body problem depends on the choice of the origin of the reference frame.
3) I think we can all agree that this has no practical use for dropping small objects to the Earth. This is a theoretical exercise, and the point of the OP is to show that, TECHNICALLY, Galileo was mistaken.
If you get a different result by choosing a different origin than him, then all bets are off.
He could also have made the claim that light travels with an infinite speed and would have been forgiven because, for all practical purposes (particularly at that point in history), he would have been correct.
He didn't make any claims per se, other than what he could measure to the best of his ability.
This thread is clearly being pedantic and technical. If anyone is offended because we're talking about absurdly minuscule differences in drop times then you don't understand the point of the exercise.
I think all of the skilled posters are ahead of the game here.
One thing I want to make clear, because it seems to be confusing people: Hamiltonian dynamics are classical physics.
You won't get too much agreement on that. Hamiltonian math/physics is considered one grade of evolution more modern than classical physics.
They are not relativity, and they are not quantum mechanics [although the Hamiltonian does play a similar, important role in quantum]. Hamiltonian dynamics are just a formalism to derive a system's classical equations of motion from its kinetic and potential energies, which is what I did.
'
The Hamiltonian is not covered in freshman physics because it's not necessary to teach students how to solve classical mechanics problems.
See above: Hamiltonian mechanics IS classical mechanics, just a different formalism from the one most people learn in intro physics.
That's getting closer to admitting that it adds nothing.
I thought it more appropriate for the problem at hand because it starts with the energy equation, which everyone [I thought] would agree on.
For that we just state early on that we are going to apply conservation of energy. That's the universal everyone will agree on.
For heaven's sake. I didn't use the Hamiltonian to derive r=x-X.
That was what I saw in your post. You ended back at the Law from whence you started, with one of the radii expressed as the difference in x-coordinates.
I used it to transform the energy equation (H=\frac{P^2}{2M}+\frac{p^2}{2m}+\frac{GMm}{r}) into the equation of motion (\frac{dv_{rel}}{dt}=\frac{G[M+m]}{r^2}).
The equation of motion follows directly from the Law, as I mentioned previously.
I'll address the question of the inertial frame below, but I want to make one thing very clear: if you agree that (H) gives the energy of the system, my expression for relative acceleration necessarily follows, based entirely on classical mechanics.
I don't agree that this added anything , that's all.
I see RJ already answered this bit,
No RJ hasn't yet answered the question.
but I'll do the same.
1. The physics should play out the same in any inertial frame, but the easiest to use is probably one with its origin at the system's center of mass.
All motion is relative. Once you change the reference frame, you alter the definition of the motion. That's all this boils down to.
2. The Earth and the ball can both move with respect to the center of mass and each other, so there are two free bodies.
Only because you chose to place the inertial reference frame at the c.m. This is an alteration of the experiment attributed to Galileo. Therefore the results will be different.
3. The effect we're discussing is small enough to be just a technicality, so its accuracy is limited to a result of either "the effect is zero" or "the effect is nonzero."
There are different kinds of misunderstandings in play. The main one is the confusion over switching reference frames, first cited by [I think] OnlyMe. Several posters I know for sure are aware of the confusion. The ones that aren't aware of it may be lead to that water, but they probably will refuse to drink.
The arguments given by RJ, myself, and others show that the effect is nonzero.
You mean the difference between the two problems is nonzero.
not useful beyond showing a nonzero difference.
In this case it may be useful for teaching Galilean relativity.
I thought so too, which is why I jumped in; an uncharacteristic number of the usually "skilled" posters seemed to be getting on the wrong side of this debate.
Maybe the horses will drink and the dry throats will be quenched.