Zero for this. This cite does not tell us Einstein was addressing the laws of mechanics. It tells us he was describing the equivalence of the gravitational acceleration with a field, the realization of which he called "the happiest thought of my life":Beaconator said:"A little reflection will show that the law of the equality of the inertial and gravitational mass is equivalent to the assertion that the acceleration imparted to a body by a gravitational field is independent of the nature of the body. For Newton's equation of motion in a gravitational field, written out in full, it is:No. Einstein was not addressing the laws of mechanics explained by Newton. He was addressing the laws of electromagnetics explained by Maxwell, Gauss, Ampere, Faraday and Coulomb, et al, subject to relative motion, as in the work of Fitzeau, Michelson & Morley, et al, as partly explained by Lorentz & Poincare. Einstein completed the explanation they had not quite finished.
(Inertial mass)*(Acceleration) = (Intensity of the gravitational field) * (Gravitational mass).
It is only when there is numerical equality between the inertial and gravitational mass that the acceleration is independent of the nature of the body." -Albert Einstein
Just as is the case with the electric field produced by electromagnetic induction, the gravitational field has similarly only a relative existence. For if one considers an observer in free fall, e.g. from the roof of a house, there exists for him during his fall no gravitational field---at least in his immediate vicinity.
Zero again. Relativity has nothing to do with Newton or Kepler who lived hundreds of years before the issue surfaced.The point you missed by going there was Kepler's laws had nothing to do with relativity, therefore, Newton's explanation, Universal Gravitation, does not account for any relativistic observations.
The material you quoted had little to do with relativity being part of Newtons or Kepler's work.
Ten points off for meaningless post.But the ideology of the reverse.
Zero for this. Einstein was motivated to connect Poincare's and Lorentz's explanations of space and time contraction and dilation in regard to interferometry (the seach for aether) with the consequences of Maxwell's equations (the light in the interferometer) subject to motion (as implemented in moving-media tests). Newton's and Kepler's Laws have nothing to do with this. From this phase of his work (1905) Einstein was next confronted by the question of how relativity applies to gravity (1907-1915) at which point he had the happiest thought of his life given above. Throughout all of this, there was no question pending about orbital mechanics.I highly doubt Einstein would have made anything that accounted for Poincare and Lorentz yet left out Newton and Kepler as false theories.
Zero again. Lorentz and Poincare's research had nothing to do with Newton's. Nor was Einstein's. Newton set out to explain Kepler's Laws. Lorentz and Poincare set out to explain the results of interferometry experiments searching for ether (space and time contraction and dilation). Einstein set out to explain Lorentz's and Poincare's results in terms of Maxwell's equations (1905). Then, when Einstein had "the happiest thought of his life" he set out to explain the equivalence of gravity to the electric field, that is, that gravity is relative (1907). None of these other men was trying to explain orbital mechanics, which was the purpose of Newton's work leading to the discovery of the Unniversal Law of Gravitation.WRT newton's laws... is the end of that sentence.he point you missed here is that the work of Einstein rests on the shoulders of the people whose work he assembled into one integrated theory (two if you want to quibble), thus explaining completely the contraction and dilation of space and time which Lorentz and Poincare had only partially answered.
Zero points for that. The facts you are disputing relate to the trajectory of scientific research from Tycho to Einstein. The ideology you speak of is yours alone. The facts of history speak for themselves in the words of the their own authors on the dates they were published. You are pretending that none of these documents exist and fabricating excuses instead of simply familiarizing yourself with what they are, what the authors actually said.Ideology doesn't always follow factual "historical" information. Especially when ideology becomes a separate entity than history and someone screws up a timeline.So far the only ideology being expressed here is that the progress in physics, from Newton to Einstein, follows some imagined trajectory you have dreamed up, outside of the actual history of events which correctly explains what happened.
Zero points again. You can not solve for velocity merely from knowing the acceleration.If you know the acceleration the velocity is easy to find. Confused? Plug and chug my friend.No, my answer was a correction to your prior statement You can't derive the initial force from the acceleration without knowing the velocity.
Wrong answer. The data we are speaking of was the source information the above-medtioned scientists and mathematicans set out to explain. Those observations, and those explanations, are facts of history which you alone deny and which you alone are confronted by critics.They became laws when the Universe was created out of the Big Bang. There is no idea created that has anything to do with the discovery of natural laws, other than the creative minds that invented new instruments and applied them to collect data. The fact that laws are revealed in data is purely objective.
This is by far your best objective critic.
Wrong again. Einstein took the explanation which completed their work (1905), had "the happiest thought of his life" and applied it to explain the nature of gravity (1907-1915), which had nothing to with Newton's explanation of orbital mechanics. Ten points off for nonsensical use of the the word "appeal".Then answered it in a Newtonian appeal before he furthered his objective research.Einstein inherited all of the foregoing and completed the explanation Lorentz and Poincare had partly answered.
Declaring that subjects you never studied, Physics & Math, are rescinded and replaced by your imagination is not a matter of taking interpretaions to extremes. It's a matter of pretending to know subject matter you never studied.Ah yes. I do enjoy taking interpretations to many extremes.Otherwise you would just have to take my word that these things happened. Either way, that's the road to being convinced of the facts. Otherwise you're stuck being convinced of something else.
If you want to know a fact of science or math, simply post your questions and people who took the courses will be happy to reply. Posting statements that purport to rewrite all of the history and results of science is counterproductive to that goal.Seems more expansive and it leaves someone else the opportunity to fill in blanks.
Since you haven't read any of the studies in question, your opinions on them are worthless.Yet it is still arguable truly objective studies rely only upon the properties of the material without interpretation.
All of the subject matter here revolves around practical results, beginning with Tycho's quest to map the positions of the planets. That was over 400 years ago and you still haven't caught up with him. Yet you deny his role in the topic at hand.Though it is more philosophical than practical at the standing moment.
Ten points off for meaningless post.So was Newton's laws and lorentz's abstractions before somebody decided to create their own subject.No one said anything about disregarding anything. Mechanics and relativity are two different subjects. If I were you I would try to grasp what the scope of each of them is
You are shaping the thread by posting false claims and nonsense. So far you have scored zero points on your math & physics quiz. And you're being penalized 30 points for nonsense/meaningless content.Hey! I didn't make this thread.Responding to people's opinions about science is often a game, only one that wants to take the fun out of learning.