dixonmassey
Valued Senior Member
Slavery is not an attribute of any particular economic system. (The National Socialists used Jews and captured Slavs as slaves.) However, as economies mature it has invariably been found to simply not be efficient.
To begin with what is efficiency? It's arrogant to assume that western definition of efficiency (a.k.a the highest possible margin of profit for a capitalist, who pays little or no regard to the externalization costs picked up by the society as whole or to be picked up by the future generations, if any) is the only true one, the only possible one.
How could you say that nazi war slave economy was not efficient? It was ZILLIONS times more "efficient" than any free market economy at the circustances Germany was facing (NUmber/0= very large number). It's enabled nazis to lead a few extra years of war. It's true, they've lost it eventualy. But what if they would have won? Without war slaves, nazi production would fell appart because of the lack of man power, lack of the resources to economically motivate free man power.
Soviety economy had its own efficiency criteria = 0% joblessness, free universal education, free universal medical care, huge army (relative to the overall size of economy), jump from agrarian backwaters to a superpower in 15 years or so.
Efficiency is not universal term, its meaning is set by the goals society sets for itself.
Accumulation of the maximum "wealth" without regard to its distribution is not the only possible measure of the economic efficiency.