Determinism and free will .

Choose one.

  • Metaphysical Libertarianism (free will, and no Determinism).

    Votes: 11 28.9%
  • Hard Determinism (Determinism, and no free will).

    Votes: 11 28.9%
  • Hard Indeterminism (No Determinism, and no free will either).

    Votes: 2 5.3%
  • I can not choose between these.

    Votes: 14 36.8%

  • Total voters
    38
Unpredictablity isn't randomness sure there are many variables but is it absolutely impossible that the universe is deterministic non-causally or pre-determined? The truth is no it's not. The more I think about it seems that the universe can't exist without being pre-determined, our existence is sequential i.e. in time which makes it seem deterministic to me. Perhaps true randomness requires 100% efficiency, or absence of sequences or change like time which the universe certainly isn't.

While obviously if you read my post you'll see that we almost share the same opinion on the determinism of universe.

Though you dont agree with Unpredictability which is matter of semantics.

1.Unpredictability=We can't predict the outcome ,but we can roughly estimate=Deterministic Randomness=Common sense Randomness.

2.Unpredictability=We can't predict the outcome ,neither we can't estimate=Quantum Randomness.

Many words have different ways of use just like chaos you mentioned before,you understand it by reading the whole sentence instead of focusing in a word.I explained in what form i meant "unpredictability" in my previous post.

So instead of me explaining what each word means would you wanna add something else to this lil almost meaningless conversation of ours?

If not then i wanna hear what nondeterminists have to say.
 
But these iterations of rules all still obey causality / randomness.

Do they? Are you sure? I'm not. And, that certainly hasn't been proven....(not that I think it could be..)

It is not that causality stops working at a certain level.


Agreed. However, unlike yourself (just assuming based upon your comments herein..), I do not equate causality with determinism.

Certainly we can see that the micro gives rise to patterns of behaviour that are not visible at the micro... a molecule of water in isolation can not tell you about a pattern of ripples.
But causality/randomness surely applies across the board.

Agreed.
Note however, that this says absolutely nothing about election.

And as such, there is no "choice" - just an illusion of it - a post-event realisation and justification.

I don't think we can move to conclude this.
Perhaps, at best, we could stretch things to admit that yes, within the realm of 'dumb matter', strict deterministic causality is the force majeur. Beyond this realm, I don't think so...


But the agent still acts causally (or randomly)

Entirely contingent upon definition.
(This area, methinks, is where you and I are having the greatest disagreement/confusion.)

Only because you cherry-picked an application that is not ;).

Ah, but as we all know via scientific method generally, and logic specifically, it only takes one case to disprove.... :)

I am assuming smooth gradation of application of causality/randomness... are you saying that this aspect is not applicable to all things?

Applicable? Yes. 'Enforced' (i.e. necessary)? No.


And the reason can be broken down and down and down... all the while causality still holding... until you end up at the micro-level. ...

Right, but not evenly so. That is to say, not only can we not follow the pattern of causality regressively (to its 'starting point, so to speak) (which is why 'causality' is still, at best, a metaphysical notion..), but we can't even directly observe it (at any scale whatsoever..). As Hume said, all we can ever observe is patterns of constant conjunction. Never causality.


No! I can not agree with this. This seems to applying some "immaterial soul"-like attribute to the agent.


Moi?!!

lol

There are many here who would be shocked to see such an accusation made of me. :)

Nonetheless, yes, I can see how you might think that.
Again, this is me focusing on the specific human element to the equation. I do think that our cognitive perspective can, and does have a great influence on our environment...


The agent being involved does NOT alter the causal chain. It is PART of the causal chain. There is only the chain. The chain began before the agent and will continue after the agent.
The Observer Effect does NOT alter the causal chain... observation merely crystallises the probability function into a specific case (or "collapses the wave-function)... but either way the observation itself is part of the causal chain... the specific case was the effect of the observation, which was caused by X which was caused by Y... etc.
Nothing "changes" as a result. To suggest change as a result of the agent is to suggest that the agent has the ability to alter the causal chain... and therefore that the actions of the agent are necessarily uncaused and non-random.

Ah, but it does definitively alter the chain. The observer 'collapses' the eigenstate right? In the absence of an observer, things would have taken a different path.

I think your last sentence is a non sequitur.
Just because one can affect change, it doesn't follow that the affector in question was somehow uncaused. You're still mixing up causality with determinism.

Moreover, you seem to be assuming that there's some Aristotelian teleological 'causality line' for the entirety of reality. It can be the case that both an event and an agent have each their own deterministic line. In this case, the two lines converge at a point, where the agent has an affect on the other (and, one assumes, vice versa..).

I can not see how this can be the case if you accept causality/randomness.

Not as a totality, no. But as a plurality.

Which are all still part of the causal chain.

Post hoc, yes. But not in any teleological sense.

I'm not arguing out of a strict-deterministic position... I disagree (as previously posted) with strict determinism. But I still don't think we can interfere with the causal chain. To do so requires an uncaused and non-random event.

It sure seems that you are. At least, if we cannot interfere with the (grand) causality chain, then it must be the case that everything that happens, must happen (in that precise way). Thus: no free will, no choice = strict determinism.


I'm happy to have you move it to a new thread... or even to PM... seems to be just you and me here anyway. ;)


Oh I'm cool keeping it all here.
It really depends on how much, and to what extent, we get into the specific human element.
 
Do they? Are you sure? I'm not. And, that certainly hasn't been proven....(not that I think it could be..)
It is the rational assumption to take... given that nothing has yet been shown to be both uncaused and non-random.

Agreed. However, unlike yourself (just assuming based upon your comments herein..), I do not equate causality with determinism.
If by determinism you mean strict determinism, nor do I. As previously stated, I assume everything is either caused or (as in the case of radiocative decay, for example) random. If something is caused then the effect follows a probability function rather than a strict output.

Agreed.
Note however, that this says absolutely nothing about election.
If by election you imply choice as opposed to a mere random output among the possibilities then it does say something about election - it negates the possibility of election.

I don't think we can move to conclude this.
Perhaps, at best, we could stretch things to admit that yes, within the realm of 'dumb matter', strict deterministic causality is the force majeur. Beyond this realm, I don't think so...
I'm NOT talking about "strict" determinism. I haven't done and I won't. It is not a position I adhere to.
Strict determinism (as I understand it) is "same cause = same effect".
I am predominantly coming from a far softer view of determinism where "same cause = same probability function of effects", and the actual effect is random, as well as taking note of random non-caused events such as radioactive decay.
All events, under this view, are either caused or random. And if caused then the resultant effect is random within the probability function.

Therefore for there to be choice/free-will then an effect has to be both uncaused and non-random.

Ah, but as we all know via scientific method generally, and logic specifically, it only takes one case to disprove.... :)
Indeed - but we're not discussing the general principle of applicability but of the specific case. You merely threw up a logical fallacy by cherry-picking. :p

Applicable? Yes. 'Enforced' (i.e. necessary)? No.
Then provide an example of where it is not necessary... where there is "choice" without cause?

Right, but not evenly so. That is to say, not only can we not follow the pattern of causality regressively (to its 'starting point, so to speak) (which is why 'causality' is still, at best, a metaphysical notion..), but we can't even directly observe it (at any scale whatsoever..). As Hume said, all we can ever observe is patterns of constant conjunction. Never causality.
Now you're just stirring up the mud to hide behind. ;)
Are you saying that there are effects that are both uncaused and non-random? Care to name but a single one?

There are many here who would be shocked to see such an accusation made of me. :)
Nonetheless, yes, I can see how you might think that.
Again, this is me focusing on the specific human element to the equation. I do think that our cognitive perspective can, and does have a great influence on our environment...
:D I know it's not something you would do - which is why I was suprised to see your comments phrased in such language.

Ah, but it does definitively alter the chain. The observer 'collapses' the eigenstate right? In the absence of an observer, things would have taken a different path.
Which is why the observer is an important cause, but it is still just a cause - and it leads to a random effect (within the probability function / waveform) - there is no certainly no choice in the outcome.

Further, the observer doesn't "alter" the chain - it merely acts as a cause within the chain - a cause that crystallises the effect of a previous cause.

Your argument would equally apply to ANY of the links within the cause/effect chain... remove any one cause and the overall chain takes a different path.

I think your last sentence is a non sequitur.
Just because one can affect change, it doesn't follow that the affector in question was somehow uncaused. You're still mixing up causality with determinism.
No - I'm not.

Each cause leads to an effect that is not strictly determined - but is random within the probability function.
The only other alternative are uncaused things, such as radioactive decay. Which again is random.
Surely for there to be "choice" the output/effect can not be random?

Moreover, you seem to be assuming that there's some Aristotelian teleological 'causality line' for the entirety of reality. It can be the case that both an event and an agent have each their own deterministic line. In this case, the two lines converge at a point, where the agent has an affect on the other (and, one assumes, vice versa..).
I am certainly not assuming that chains are discrete. If I talk of "cause" and "effect" as being singular it is masking the complexity of the influences that make up a "cause" and an "effect".
The "cause" would be everything with influence on the "effect".
Ultimately this would be expanded to everything at one moment being the cause for everything at the next moment (being the effect).

But there is nothing teleological about what I am saying.

Post hoc, yes. But not in any teleological sense.
Again - nothing teleological here.
As for being post hoc... are you implying the post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy??
I'm assuming not - so I'm not sure why it should be an issue?

It sure seems that you are. At least, if we cannot interfere with the (grand) causality chain, then it must be the case that everything that happens, must happen (in that precise way). Thus: no free will, no choice = strict determinism.
Misconception of strict determinism on your part, I think - or perhaps mine.

Strict determinism is (as I understand it, correct me if you think differently) "same input = same output", and does not allow for randomness.
I am arguing from mere causality and non-caused randomness: same input = same probability function (i.e. random output within the probability function), but with things being non-caused but random (e.g. radioactive decay).
This is not strict determinism but also does not allow for free-will or choice.

Oh I'm cool keeping it all here.
It really depends on how much, and to what extent, we get into the specific human element.
Since (in this thread) I see no difference between the "human" element and any other, I have no desire to explore it specifically here.
 
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Since I am not sure of my conclusions, I try to go step by step.
In my opinion, the three-dimensional material lifeless world is strictly deterministic.
We can say that all Laws of science are valid and are not random.
The laws of science are various established scientific laws, or physical laws as they are sometimes called, that are considered universal and invariable facts of the physical world.[dubious – discuss] Laws of science may, however, be disproved if new facts or evidence contradicts them. A "law" differs from hypotheses, theories, postulates, principles, etc., in that a law is an analytic statement, usually with an empirically determined constant. A theory may contain a set of laws, or a theory may be implied from an empirically determined law.
So these laws operate independently of human will.
Therefore in this thread I'm interested in free-will in terms of possibility changing causality.
A complete analysis of free-will is really the subject of another thread.

In my opinion, the man is an agent, as glaucon says, or operator.
He can initialize these laws but can not intervene on these laws, in the sense of changing the outcome or the effect.
He has no power of god to change laws.
He has a limited opportunity to change the outcome by initializing other laws that stop the first.
For example he starts a fire which is a violent oxidation described by the laws of chemistry.
To stop the fire he has to use another law of chemistry,eliminate oxygen around the fire with a fire extinguisher.
So, the man introduces a limited indeterminism on the three-dimensional material lifeless world wich is strictly deterministic.
I believe that life introduces an indeterminism and not only humans.
And animals or plants can act on the three-dimensional material lifeless world and introduce a limited indeterminism.For instance, an animal can trigger an avalanche, or plants via photosynthesis process acting on on the three-dimensional material lifeless world.
I understand by limited indeterminism,they can not change the laws,they do not have the power of God.
I can not draw conclusions yet and am curious if you have anything to add.

P.S. I think an analysis of relations between "agent" and "agent" (or "operator" and "operator") will be much more difficult.
 
Since I am not sure of my conclusions, I try to go step by step.
In my opinion, the three-dimensional material lifeless world is strictly deterministic.

So these laws operate independently of human will.

Therefore in this thread I'm interested in free-will in terms of possibility changing causality.

Based on the premise that humans have free will... give an esample of how the causality you'r talkin about can be changed.!!!
 
Based on the premise that humans have free will... give an esample of how the causality you'r talkin about can be changed.!!!

Extinguish a fire.

Then yes... based on the premise that humans have free will (are not meerly a part of the causal chane).!!!

Prollem is... that concluson is perty wortless unless thers evidence that the premise is valid.!!!
 
While obviously if you read my post you'll see that we almost share the same opinion on the determinism of universe.

Though you dont agree with Unpredictability which is matter of semantics.

1.Unpredictability=We can't predict the outcome ,but we can roughly estimate=Deterministic Randomness=Common sense Randomness.

2.Unpredictability=We can't predict the outcome ,neither we can't estimate=Quantum Randomness.

Many words have different ways of use just like chaos you mentioned before,you understand it by reading the whole sentence instead of focusing in a word.I explained in what form i meant "unpredictability" in my previous post.

So instead of me explaining what each word means would you wanna add something else to this lil almost meaningless conversation of ours?

If not then i wanna hear what nondeterminists have to say.


I don't care to play word games with you but you just gave me the most non-sequitur reply I ever encountered it doesn't matter if the universe is probabilistic or not I think the universe must be deterministic just to exist, it doesn't matter if it seems unpredictable to us. Our existence is finite and completely specified can we honestly answer the question why our universe is the way it is out of infinite possiblities our perception itself is finite. It's not that I'm a causal determinist it's that the universe doesn't seem truly random.
 
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...
I think the universe must be deterministic just to exist, it doesn't matter if it seems unpredictable to us.

Alas, simply because you just "think" the universe must be deterministic, that doesn't make an argument. Any defense of a position requires a little more than you just saying it must be so...


Mod Note:

deicider, Big Chiller,

This forum is a place for philosophical discussion, not simple opining and the tossing out of abuse.
Any more such posts will be summarily edited and/or deleted.

 

This forum is a place for philosophical discussion, not simple opining and the tossing out of abuse.
Any more such posts will be summarily edited and/or deleted.


:yay:

i would vote for editing as a tool for teaching what is abuse.
 
:yay:

i would vote for editing as a tool for teaching what is abuse.

lol

I'm hoping it doesn't come to that, but, in any case, it shouldn't be necessary. It's understood here that, as a poster, you have read and understood the Site Rules and Regulations. Woe unto those who have not...
 
I am not conviced that a particular causal chain has anything to do with Freewill.
The reason is that the moment of choice or decision is always at a particular moment and it is at that moment that very small instance that freewill as a concept lives or dies.

Regardless of the causation do we have the ability to ignore it?
Do we have the ability to make choices concerning all causation chains.

If your choices are determined by absolutely every causal chain does this not imply freedom of choice regarding all the alternative causations provided?
Quoting my earlier post [#106] which appears to have been ignored or over looked.



Fully determined free will....
"If your choices are determined by absolutely everything then those choices must therefore be free of limitations unless you consider being "determined by absolutely everything" as a limitation"

Therefore free will and determinism can quite happilly co-exist but only when your choices are determined by absolutely everything
So Freewill exists as an ideal that we Humans may never acheive despite our constant quest to do so. [rel: to the human God Complex.]
and after years of thinking on this subject I have found that it is the ability we have to choose NOT TO CHOOSE that is a key factor in the "reality or no" of free will.
Afterall [referring to a famous tv commercial]
"Is it not the fish that JOHN W*ST rejects that makes JOHN WE*T the best"
 
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and after years of thinking on this subject I have found that it is the ability we have to choose NOT TO CHOOSE that is a key factor in the "reality or no" of free will.

if you choose not to decide you still have made a choice..

red barchetta, rush

(i could be wrong about song)
 
if you choose not to decide you still have made a choice..

red barchetta, rush

(i could be wrong about song)
well you know uhm....you gotta do something to do nothing [when awake at least -chuckle]
Free will comes at a cost so to speak....[called ..uhm...living]
 
I ask those argue that free-will does not exist and is only an illusion.
If the choice is just an illusion,
this means that man is not responsible for his own choice?
 
I ask those argue that free-will does not exist and is only an illusion.
If the choice is just an illusion,
this means that man is not responsible for his own choice?

That's one logical ethical extension derived from such an assertion, yes.
But, let's stay on topic here.
 
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