Sorry I went on holiday. I wanted the question quite vague because I wanted to see what people thought, and I did not want to limit the discussion to humans, or even multicellular organisms. I find the concept of bacterial ‘sex’ fascinating.
Human sex is legally taken as the characteristic of the being as represented by the chromosomes, gonads and genitals. (cells are composed of chromosomes, and compose gonads and genitals). (There is also some pressure within the legal arena to use the concept of ‘brain sex’, that is the sex of someone’s mind.) Quite a few people (i.e. intersex) have a variation with in these three factors due to chromosomal, genetic or developmental reasons.
Indeed the question of how to test for sex is problematic, and as far as I know the Olympic games have resigned themselves to only investigating complaints of sex cheating because the bar body test was so scientifically problematic.
I am aware of the pro-women’s movement in the US which would argue that there is a difference between male and female cells and that female cells and tissues should be included in drug research/trials. They also cite evidence from that transplant organs where the female to male success rate is very low, while male to male is very high.
I was wondering if there is a difference between male and female cells, and if so what type of difference this would be (chromosomes –sure but most of the genes important to sex development aren’t on the ‘male making’ Y chromosome, and having something is different from actually using it, so should we not be talking of a male genome rather than a Y chromosome?)
It would be quite possible that some cells in our body are neuter-in that they do not transcribe a male or female genome (lungs, finger tips, ect) while other places such as the genitals may be composed of sexed cells. Indeed in some cases of the intersex their gonads are composed of both male and female cells (testis and ovary).
Getting carried away….cheers