Big Bang Validity: A Questionable Approach

R

Reiku

Banned
Banned
I won't bore the reader to much. I will quickly make a few or two more assumptions concerning the so-called ''Big Bang Hypothesis.'' This will be good for us, i think in the long run, because maybe, just maybe, this will spark enough attention to develop a world-site view on a final hypothesis? Up for the challenge? Only thing... I'm starting it :D

First: A quick summery of Big Bang <> It is the notion that from a singular point in spacetime (singularity) or a topological opening as coined (Wormhole) is where all matter and energy evolved from what we call an infinite density, curvature and even energy. The Uncertainty Principle forced this compilation of ingreadients outwards, because this super-compactification of infinity defied the rules of energy having definate positions and paths simultaneously. It expanded first as space and time, as they are primal, and only 32, possible even 380,000 years later, light appeared from the gravitational potential, which excited the quantum packets to come out of the ZPE Field.

1. Light can convert into other particles: such as electrons and pions. The equation describing this, which i have adapted slightly from relativity, is:

t'=t_0 √ 1^4 - Mc^2/Ec^2 = 0

Which allow us to see it in light of matter-antimatter relationships, through:

E=Mc2

Which converts to the negative of E=-Mc2 due to Diracs Equation giving:

E=-Mc2+(E=Mc2) = 1022KeV of gamma energy or 511^2

Through:

M=E/c2

This describes the natural nature of the universe, which should have created matter and antimatter in equal proportion. But there is quite a strong arguement in CTP Violation... but not every scientist is so convinced.

2. But if, antimatter was created in quite an amount, then it could answer the descrepency in that 8 by 2 billion years configuration called simply, a ''big hole'' - If antimatter was created in equal proportion, then there could have been a very early antimatter-matter collision. IF IT happened very early on, perhaps even during inflation, it could answer quite a bit for the background temperatures, since inflation, mediated by the Inflaton, distributed all matter (and that must also mean these virtual background tempertaures, in a very homogenous and istropic distillution)... If this theory is correct, the early matter-antimatter collision cause this massive hole, and allowed enough time, (we need about 8 billion years to my calculations), to allow the radiaton from such a collision to escape, so that it is as empty as we are measuring it.

Any thoughts?
 
If antimatter was created in equal proportion, then there could have been a very early antimatter-matter collision
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Ummm no. Very early, like within the first three minutes, the ratio of matter to anti-matter is already established.

This is known from observation.
 
Well Spotted, but i need to debate this, as i wondered if one would ask this question:

1 .The CTP arguement, might be misuderstood.... right now, i am speculating, that perhaps CP-Violation wasn't inferring that antimatter be exhiled from the theory, but rather the CP-Violation created ratio of antimatter more than the expected amount. In other words, CP-V might be saying that a smaller amount of antmatter was created, but not all matter has an antiparticle.

2. If this is true, then ther smaller amount of antimatter could have collsioned with perhaps with this void of nothingness, which was once full of ordinary matter. Then we must assume, that if the big bang is about 14 billion years old, then the collision need to begin very early on, the give it 8 billion years to allow the gamma by-products enough time

This means then that 8 billion years ago, would be suffice in leaving this 8 by 2 hole empty.
 
Reiku:

Can you please use tex tags for your mathematics?

It is confusing when you write things like E=mc2. (Is that supposed to be squared, or what?)
 
Reiku---

There are very good limits on things like the age of the universe. For example, the number 380,000 years is known very well.

I'm pretty sure that

but rather the CP-Violation created ratio of antimatter more than the expected amount.
Click to expand...

doesn't work. The CP violation is not large enough to explain the matter-antimatter asymmetry in the universe.
 
But i could easily say, that supergalaxies, according toEinstein and Lerners + perhaps even Hoyle - all said that should have taken around 80 billion years to form. If we add the premiture calculations we have, then that would estimate a real age for the univese to be something like perhaps 100 billion years.

''Unless, and this is my whole point,'' The CP violation may in fact be a negative force in spacetime, allowing the CC to become positive, as predicted by your string theory right now conerning ZPE.
 
But i could easily say, that supergalaxies, according toEinstein and Lerners + perhaps even Hoyle - all said that should have taken around 80 billion years to form. If we add the premiture calculations we have, then that would estimate a real age for the univese to be something like perhaps 100 billion years.
Click to expand...

Then how do you address the current experimental estimates that the universe is much younger?
 
Because there are 10^80 particles in the observable universe (which is about 45 million light years away), and there is still the question to how much more volume we have yet to observe.
 
No. All of the particles that are EVER in the universe are created in the first 20 minutes.
 
I'm talking about todys observable universe. Now that you misunderstoof me, please put this back in physics.
 
So am I.

You continue to disregard what the experiments tell us. Until you begin actually thinking about why you may be wrong, in terms of what the experimentalists measure, then this cannot be called science.
 
I understand that all matter/energy are created within a great distance after the ''so-called'' big bang. If you refer back to what i said, and analyze it correctly, you will hopefully see the solution to your question i provided.

:)
 
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