Acceptable adultery?

rob k

Registered Senior Member
Hi guys, I'd like to hear your opinions on the following scenario...

A young couple apply for a divorce after three years of marriage. Both have remained faithful during this period but simply fell out of love and became unhappy together. The divorce takes a minimum of six months to complete.

If the couple are separated, but still technically married, is it ethically acceptable to date and/or sleep with different partners before the divorce is official?
 
Yes. I don't know if it would interfere with the divorce proceedings, but other than that, there is no problem aside from a religious perspective. Hell, you could engage in adultery while you were married and justify it if you wanted to.
 
The obvious first question is .....acceptable by whose standards?

But if I understand laws in the USA, then "separated" doesn't mean anything in the legal sense of the word. It just means that you're no longer living together and/or living as husband and wife. As I understand it, "separated" is only a term that married couples use so as to deflect any more intimate questions.

Is it adultery if they have sex outside the marriage? Yes, as defined by laws in the USA and as seen by most anyone in our society.

Baron Max
 
If the couple are separated, but still technically married, is it ethically acceptable to date and/or sleep with different partners before the divorce is official?
If the intent is to divorce, then why would you have any attachment to the marraige? You've already shown that you disown the marraige, and that you are no longer loyal to your spouse by engaging in the divorce in the first place, and isn't that the only thing that you lose ethically by commiting adultry? Legally, you sould make sure that you don't stand to lose anything by the act(due to the prenuptial). Unless you're religious, then..what religion?
 
Hi guys, I'd like to hear your opinions on the following scenario...

A young couple apply for a divorce after three years of marriage. Both have remained faithful during this period but simply fell out of love and became unhappy together. The divorce takes a minimum of six months to complete.

If the couple are separated, but still technically married, is it ethically acceptable to date and/or sleep with different partners before the divorce is official?

Morally
IMO

yes it is acceptable, if you are starting divorce proceedings and know the relationship is over

who gives a shit about cultural acceptability, why should a piece of paper stop you getting on with your life?

I started divorce proceedings 17months ago and I'm still not divorced. I'm sure glad I never put my life on hold till it was all done and dusted and my ex certainly didn't either.

LEGALLY though
In Uk a partner who you are separated from can divorce you for adultury if you have a partner while separated, BUT only if divorce proceedings have not yet commenced by the other partner. For example if I had just separated from my ex and not started divorce proceedings, when he or I met our new partners we could have each cited adultury as a reason for the divorce. BUT as I had already started divorce proceedings on other grounds, he cannot then divorce me for adultury or vice versa. blah blah. etc etc.
 
Hi guys, I'd like to hear your opinions on the following scenario...

A young couple apply for a divorce after three years of marriage. Both have remained faithful during this period but simply fell out of love and became unhappy together. The divorce takes a minimum of six months to complete.

If the couple are separated, but still technically married, is it ethically acceptable to date and/or sleep with different partners before the divorce is official?

If something like this happened, than it doesnt matter whether the partners have sex with someone else, because they have separated and are no longer in bond of love. But really in life...there should be only one love.
 
I believe that legally a fair amount of time should pass in the divorce procedure, before you can date again, otherwise it's something like a grave insult toward your partner meaning that they can legally steal most of your money. I gues it should be somewhat the same in the US
 
How certain is the intent to divorce? Is it 100 percent? If so, there is no moral problem. If not, then there are some.
 
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